Answer:
The aggregate demand will fall
Explanation:
The aggregate supply measures the quantity of real GDP that can be supplied by in the economy at different price levels. it measures planned output if both prices and average wage rates can change, the Long run aggregate supply curve is assumed to be vertical (this means it remains constant when the general price level changes).
The leftward shift in aggregate supply means that at the same price levels the quantity supplied of real GDP has decreased. This is mostly due to natural disasters or other supply shocks like economic depression, when there is leftward shift in aggregate there would be fewer workers available to produce goods at any given price.
Answer:
the Annual inventory cost is $800.
Explanation:
The computation of the total annual inventory cost is given below:
Demand, D = 4000
Order cost, S = $ 20
Holding cost, H = $ 4
So,
EOQ = sqrt(2 ×D × S ÷ H)
= sqrt(2 × 4000 × 20 ÷ 4)
= 200
Now
Annual inventory cost = Annual setup cost + Annual holding cost
= (D ÷ Q × S) + (Q ÷ 2 × H)
= (4000 ÷ 200 × 20) + (200 ÷ 2 × 4)
= 400 + 400
= $800
hence, the Annual inventory cost is $800.
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Because naturally within a market the equilibrium price is trying to be reached, (besides price ceilings and floors imposed by the government), Sellers will naturally push the price downwards because they must compete with each other to make a living. Thus answer C. is correct.
Answer:
Large most likely reports net cash outflows from investing activities of $9 million.
Explanation:
Large Corporation
Statement of cash flows (extract)
$ in millions
Purchase of patent ($14)
Proceeds from sale of land and buildings 24
Cash paid to acquire office equipment (19)
Net cash flows from investing activities ($9)
Note that the purchase of treasury stock belongs to financing activities section of the cash flows, while gain from sale of land and buildings and investment revenue belong to operating activities section of the cash flows
Answer:
Explanation:
In this question, we use the present value (PV) formula.
The NPER represents the time period
Given that,
Present value = ?
Future value = $250,000
Rate of interest = 7%
NPER = 85 - 65 = 20 years
The formula is shown below:
= PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)
=PV(0.07;20;;-250000)
The Future value come in negative
So, after solving this, the answer would be Rs.64,604.75
