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expeople1 [14]
2 years ago
12

A closed-end, commingled opportunity fund is being created with an expected three-year life. It expects to acquire properties th

at it expects to turnaround and sell at the end of three years for a gain. It also plans a minimum target return of 10 percent to investors, which will be based on cash distributions from operations and from the sale of properties at the end of the life of the fund. The opportunity fund manager expects to receive a promote equal to 25 percent of cash flows remaining after sale of the assets and after equity investors receive their minimum 10 percent target return. Cash flows are expected as follows: Equity Investment Cash Distributions from Operations to Equity Investors (After Management Fees) Expected Sale Proceeds Year 0 $ 2,600,000 Year 1 $ 80,000 Year 2 80,000 Year 3 80,000 $ 3,600,000 Required: a. What must be the cash flows to equity investors at the end of year 3 in order to achieve their total target 10 percent return on equity investment
Business
1 answer:
pickupchik [31]2 years ago
4 0

Based on the cashflows in the previous years and the present value, the cash flows to equity investors at the end of year should be $3,275,800.

<h3>What should be the cashflow at the end of year 3?</h3><h3 />

The cashflow at the end of year 3 should have a present value that when added to the present value of the cashflows in years 1 and 2, will equal the present value of the investment of $2,600,000.

That amount is:

2,600,000 = (80,000 / ( 1 + 10%)) + (80,000 / ( 1 + 10%)²) +( Amount / ( 1 + 10%)³)

2,600,000 = 138,842.9752 + ( Amount / ( 1 + 10%)³)

( Amount / ( 1 + 10%)³) = 2,600,000 - 138,842.9752

Amount = 2,461,157.0248 x 1.1³

= $3,275,800

Find out more on present value at brainly.com/question/20813161.

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On March 1, 2019, Baltimore Corporation had 65,000 shares of common stock outstanding with a par value of $5 per share. On March
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

retained earnings 175,500

      common stock               48,750

      paid in excess of par   126,750

Explanation:

The diivdends are 15% so we multiply this by the shares outstanding to know the amount of shares:

65,000 x 15% = 9,750 shares

Then we multiply by the market value to know the amount needed:

9,750 x $18 market value = $175,500 stock dividends

The common stock will be 9,750 at par

and the remainder will be paid in excess.

9,750 x 5 = 48,750 CS

175,500 - 48,750 = 126,750

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a low-interest loan to students with very high financial need? A.Direct PLUS B.Pell C.Gates D.Perkins
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My answer would have to be D.Perkins
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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sveticcg [70]

It is True that if a beneficiary is enrolled in a Medicare Advantage plan and they also sign up for a pdp plan, they will be automatically dropped from their Medicare Advantage (ma) plan.

<h3>Medicare Advantage (MA)</h3>

A Medicare Advantage plan is a type of health plan proposed by a private company that leases with Medicare to provide you with all your Medicare Parts A and B benefits. MA plans contain health maintenance organizations, selected provider organizations, personal fee-for-service plans, and Special Needs Plans.

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6 0
1 year ago
How much is a $2 dollar bill worth
seraphim [82]
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Hope this helps :)
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The government has the ability to influence the level of output in the short run using monetary and fiscal policy. There is some
Gwar [14]

Answer:

Option B                                  

Explanation:

In simple words, A policy of stabilisation refers to the package or group of indicators that have been presented to normalize a financial sector or economic system. The term may relates to initiatives in two separate situations: convergence of the economic cycle or stabilisation of its credit crunch. It is one type of unilateral strategy in any situation.

    Thus, from the above we can conclude that the correct option is B .

7 0
3 years ago
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