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expeople1 [14]
2 years ago
12

A closed-end, commingled opportunity fund is being created with an expected three-year life. It expects to acquire properties th

at it expects to turnaround and sell at the end of three years for a gain. It also plans a minimum target return of 10 percent to investors, which will be based on cash distributions from operations and from the sale of properties at the end of the life of the fund. The opportunity fund manager expects to receive a promote equal to 25 percent of cash flows remaining after sale of the assets and after equity investors receive their minimum 10 percent target return. Cash flows are expected as follows: Equity Investment Cash Distributions from Operations to Equity Investors (After Management Fees) Expected Sale Proceeds Year 0 $ 2,600,000 Year 1 $ 80,000 Year 2 80,000 Year 3 80,000 $ 3,600,000 Required: a. What must be the cash flows to equity investors at the end of year 3 in order to achieve their total target 10 percent return on equity investment
Business
1 answer:
pickupchik [31]2 years ago
4 0

Based on the cashflows in the previous years and the present value, the cash flows to equity investors at the end of year should be $3,275,800.

<h3>What should be the cashflow at the end of year 3?</h3><h3 />

The cashflow at the end of year 3 should have a present value that when added to the present value of the cashflows in years 1 and 2, will equal the present value of the investment of $2,600,000.

That amount is:

2,600,000 = (80,000 / ( 1 + 10%)) + (80,000 / ( 1 + 10%)²) +( Amount / ( 1 + 10%)³)

2,600,000 = 138,842.9752 + ( Amount / ( 1 + 10%)³)

( Amount / ( 1 + 10%)³) = 2,600,000 - 138,842.9752

Amount = 2,461,157.0248 x 1.1³

= $3,275,800

Find out more on present value at brainly.com/question/20813161.

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If the economy is at potential output, and the Fed _____ the money supply, in the long run, the price level will likely _____.
serg [7]

Answer:

If the economy is at the potential output and the Fed increases the money supply, in the long run real GDP will likely remain the same.

Explanation:

hoped this helped

4 0
3 years ago
Allegheny Company ended Year 1 with balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $68,000 and $3450, re
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

  • What amount will Allegheny report as bad debts Expense on its Year 2 income statement?

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Explanation:

  • Balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of:

Dr Accounts receivable $ 68,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3,450

 

  • Allegheny write off $6300 of Uncollectible Accounts.  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6,300

Cr Accounts receivable $ 6,300

 

  • Allegheny estimates that the ending Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance should be $5,400  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Because the company already has a DEBIT balance ($2,850) in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  

it's necessary to register an entry that COMPENSATE ($8,250) the existing value and reflect the value estimated as bad debts ($5,400 = $8,250-$2,850).  

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % of estimated value.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets .

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

8 0
3 years ago
Sheridan Company uses job order costing for its brand new line of sewing machines. The cost incurred for production during 2019
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

$1,440 per machine

Explanation:

The computation of the cost per machine is shown below:

= Total cost ÷ number of machine completed

where,

Total cost = Material cost + direct labor cost + manufacturing overhead applied cost + beginning work in process cost - ending work in process cost

= $15,000 + $11,000 + $7,000 + $11,000 - $8,000

= $36,000

And, the number of machine completed is 25

So, the cost per machine is

= $36,000 ÷ 25 machines

= $1,440 per machine

4 0
3 years ago
. In 2000, KFC® and A&amp;W® restaurants successfully merged because each had a strong
klio [65]

Explanation:

Co-branding is a form of branding that connects companies together. Essentially, co-branding is a marketing partnership between two or more businesses.

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After you send in your FAFSA form, what will you receive back
goldenfox [79]
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