PV = A*[1-(1+r)^-n]/r
A = annual payment = $100,000
r = Interest rate = 8% = 0.08
n = Number of year = 20
PV = present value of the earnings
Therefore,
PV = 100,000*[1-(1+0.08)^-20]/0.08 = $981,814.74
Answer:
refers to performing the same tasks better than rivals perform them.
Explanation:
Operational effectiveness is refers to the situation in which the things excel. It helps in the progression of a work and brings change in the output of the company. When the inputs of the organization are used at the best possible way to bring the maximum outputs out of them, the company is said to be experiencing the operational efficiency. In this process the company excels and leaves the competitors behind.
Answer:
Step 1:
Start by setting it up with the divisor 20 on the left side and the dividend 16 on the right side like this:
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 2:
The divisor (20) goes into the first digit of the dividend (1), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
Step 3:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
0
Step 4:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (1 - 0 = 1) and write the answer below.
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1
Step 5:
Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (6) like this:
0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 6:
The divisor (20) goes into the bottom number (16), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
Step 7:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
0
Step 8:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (16 - 0 = 16) and write the answer at the bottom.
0 0
2 0 ⟌ 1 6
- 0
1 6
- 0
1 6
You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.
The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.
Therefore, the answer to 16 divided by 20 calculated using Long Division is:
0
16 Remainder
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is $1,402,000
Explanation:
Cost of an asset is the total cost of acquiring and asset plus the cost incurred in bringing the asset to a working condition e.g cost of transporting the asset to factory, cost of installation etc.
Cost of the machine is:
Cost of acquisition $4,000,000
Cost of installation. $10,000
Building a clean room. $3,000,000
Total cost is. $7,010,000
No salvage value
Useful life is 5 years
Cost of depreciation using the straight-line method is
(cost of the asset - salvage value) ÷ number of useful life
$7,010,000 ÷ 5
= $1,402,000
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Economic base are businesses that generate employment in a community or a geographical area.
Economic base analysis is a theory that posits that activities in an area divide into two categories:
1) Basic industries are those exporting from the region and bringing wealth from outside.
2)Nonbasic industries support basic industries.
The basic industries of a region are identified by comparing employment in the region to national norms.
