Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
Answer:
c = 32/3
Step-by-step explanation:
Eliminate the fraction by mult. all terms by 8: 96 + 3c = 64.
Subtract 64 from both sides, obtaining: 3c = 32. Solving for c, c = 32/3.
22 is the answer to this math problem
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Below are the choices that can be found from other source:
A.$340
<span>B.$1560 </span>
<span>C.$38 </span>
<span>D.$1862</span>
Below is the solution:
78000 x .0.02=1560
<span>1900 - 1560=340</span>
