Complete question:
On January 1. Year 1. White Co. sold a property with a remaining useful life of 20 years to Blue Co. for $900.000. At the same time. White entered into a contract with Blue for the right to use the property (leaseback) for a period of 6 years. with annual rental payments of 580.000 that approximate the market rental payments for similar properties. On January 1. Year 1. the carrying amount of the property was 5680.000. and its fair value was 5770.000. A discount rate for the lease of 10% is used by both White and Blue. The present value factor for an ordinary annuity at 10% for 6 periods is 4.3553. The lease does not transfer the property to White at the end of the lease term and does not include a purchase option.
What amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1 ?
A. $0
B. $130,000
C. $90,000
D. $220,000
Answer:
$90,000 amount of lease expense for the right of use of the property is recognised by White in Year 1
Explanation:
If the leaseback is known as an operating lease, the original transition to the buyer-lessor of the asset should be taken into account as the selling of an asset, given that all the income identification requirements have been fulfilled.
If the deal is of equal value, the lender lease is informed of the gain or loss of sale between the purchase price and the sum of the land that is held. Yet this is not a equal value trade. The property's sale price is higher than its market value. Accordingly, the income or loss on sale seems to be the difference between the equal worth and the value of the land.
Therefore, on 1 January, White records a benefit of $90,000 in revenue of $770,000 (fair value of $680,000 in carrying amounts)
Answer: hello your question is incomplete attached below is the complete question.
answer :
3.02 million, 2.96 million, 2.91 million
Explanation:
<u>Determine the swap rate over a 3-year period</u>
swap rate = forward exchange rate * exchange amount
For year 1
1.4 * ( 1 + 0.03 / 1 + 0.05 ) * 2.2 million
= 1.4 ( 0.98095 ) * 2.2
= 3.02 million
For year 2
1.4 * ( 1 + 0.03 / 1 + 0.05 )^2 * 2..2 million
= 1.4 ( 0.98095 )^2 * 2.2 million
= 2.96378 million
For year 3
1.4 * ( 1 + 0.03 / 1 + 0.05 )^3 * 2.2 million
= 1.4 ( 0.98095 )^3 * 2.2 million
= 2.90733 million
Answer:
There will be a foreign exchange gain
Explanation:
In the given situation we can see that there should be an exposure with respect to the foreign exchange for the japanese subsidiary as it should be payable to the foreign currency i.e. in the united states dollars at the same time the functional currency is Yen
So as per the given situation, there would be the foreign exchange gain
Answer:
$20000 gain for John Corporation and $10000 loss for Bass Corporation.
Explanation:
John Corporation gain(loss) = FMV of property - Liability assumed - Stock basis
= 55000-10000-25000
= 20000
Bass Corporation gain/loss = 55000-65000
= - 10000
Therefore, $20000 gain for John Corporation and $10000 loss for Bass Corporation.