Question Completion:
(A) apparent self-reproach for using poetic diction he has used before
(B) ambition to earn fame by being in the vanguard of poetic movements (C) yearning for a wider range of themes in order to develop his poetic skill
(D) reluctant acknowledgement that he is no longer as prolific as he once was
(E) disgust with his inability to write in a more polished, conventional poetic form
Answer:
1. In context, the question in line 5 ("Why write... ever the same") conveys the speaker's
(E) disgust with his inability to write in a more polished, conventional poetic form.
Explanation:
Line 5 of Sonnet 76 was authored by William Shakespeare and published in 1609. The line conveys the speaker's frustration that he was always speaking on the same subject of love and too often with words that are easily recognizable as his because of their literary features. Sonnet 76 is titled "Why is my verse so barren of new pride," depicting a fruitless womb. But we know that the words of the acclaimed wordsmith have remained prolific ever since. Instead, like the poet, we realize that the description of love remains the same since time immemorial because love has no duplicates or counterfeits.
The words or expressions containing allusions are Canadians, the roads of Santa Fe, and Maya Angelou's books,as is additionally made sense of beneath.
<h3>What do you mean by allusion?</h3>
Allusion is a sort of metaphorical language we insinuate something when we notice it certainly. Allusion doesn't make sense of the importance or story behind it.
Assuming that a writer implies Maya Angelou's books, he is expecting that his peruser know who Maya Angelou was and what her books are about. In this way, he is making an understood notice to a celebrity.
The equivalent should be possible for occasions. On the off chance that a writer implies the roads of Santa Fe, he expects perusers realize what occurred in those roads. He doesn't need to expressly make sense of it.
For more information about allusion,refer the following link:
brainly.com/question/10100127
The answer is B: ad hominem.
A logical fallacy is a failed form of argument that reaches a conclusion by means of invalid proofs that are not justified. Ad hominem (which could be translated as “against the man”) is one such logical fallacy and it involves an argument based on a direct attack of a person´s character or circumstances when they are not related to the content of the argument itself.
