Answer:
D Indian
Explanation:
The Byzantine Empire blends Greek culture with all of the following cultures except Indian. I don't really know how to explain this... it just is.
Globalization must be expected to influence the distribution of income as well as its level. So far as the distribution of income between countries is concerned, standard theory would lead one to expect that all countries will benefit. Economists have long preached that trade is mutually beneficial, and most of us believe that the experience of widespread growth alongside rapidly growing trade in the postwar period serves to substantiate that. Similarly most FDI goes where a multinational has intellectual capital that can contribute something to the local economy, and is therefore likely to be mutually beneficial to investor and recipient. And a flow of capital that finances a real investment is again likely to benefit both parties, since the yield on the investment is expected to be higher than the rate of interest the borrower has to pay, while that rate of interest is also likely to be higher than the lender could expect at home since otherwise there would have been no incentive to send it abroad. Loose talk about free trade making the rich countries richer and poor countries poorer finds no support in economic analysis.
Answer:
The League of Nations was set to weaken Germany, so it weakened the Germans.
Explanation:
The three-fifths compromise was when the Northern and Southern states decided to make an enslaved person count as 3/5 of a person for taxation and representation. This shows back then that Americans viewed slaves as property and didn't want them to count as a real person.
