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gregori [183]
2 years ago
13

The height of Mountain Pis 1,086 feet. The height of Mountain Q is 4 times the

Mathematics
2 answers:
Afina-wow [57]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

4,344 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Mt. P is 1,086 feet tall. It says that Mt. Q is 4 times that. 1,086 x 4 is 4,344.

matrenka [14]2 years ago
3 0
4344 Feet Is The Answer
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Are the lengths changing in a linear fashion in the listing above? Perry's hot tub​
Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

there isnt anything there but sure yes they are

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
What is the consecutve whole numbers of <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%7B40" id="TexFormula1" title="\sqrt{40" alt="\
Inessa [10]

Step-by-step explanation:

\sqrt{36}  <   \sqrt{40}  <   \sqrt{49}

So sqrt(40) lies between 6 and 7.

3 0
2 years ago
Which graph represents the solution set of the compound inequality below? x + 3 &lt; (4x – 12) &lt; 20
nordsb [41]

x + 3 < 4x - 12                 or            4x - 12 < 20

<u>-x      </u>   <u> -x         </u>                              <u>     +12 </u>  <u>+12 </u>

     3 < 3x - 12                 or           4x        < 32

<u>    +12</u>   <u>     +12  </u>                            <u> ÷4        </u>   <u>÷4  </u>

    15 < 3x                       or              x        <  8

<u>    ÷3</u>    <u>÷3 </u>

    5 <  x

5 < x < 8

Graph:   5 o---------------o 8



6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
BRAINLIEST AND MAX PTS<br><br> CONVERT y = 40x + 600 to point-slope form
IRISSAK [1]

Answer:

The answer to your question is y - 0 = 40(x - 15)

Step-by-step explanation:

                                  y = 40x + 600

Convert to                 y - y₁ = m(x - x₁)          

Process

1.- Factor 40 in the right side of the equation

                                 y = 40(x - 15)

2.- Give the form of the point slope form

                                 y - 0 = 40(x - 15)

where

y₁ = 0

m = 40

x₁ = 15

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help with this ASAP please!!
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

Translation 1 unit left

Step-by-step explanation:

we have

f(x)=x

g(x)=(x+1)

we know that

The rule of the transformation of f(x) to g(x) is equal to

f(x) ------> g(x)

(x,y) -----> (x-1,y)

That means----> The translation is 1 unit to the left

6 0
3 years ago
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