Answer:
$ 142,800.00
Explanation:
The ending inventory can be computed by rearranging the cost of goods sold formula:
cost of goods sold=Beginning inventory+net purchases-ending inventory
ending inventory=beginning inventory+net purchases-cost of goods sold
beginning inventory is $92,000
Net purchases=purchases-discount+freight-in charges-purchase return
net purchases=$425,000-($425,000*1%)+$7000-($5000*99%)=$422,800.00
cost of goods sold is $372,000
ending inventory=$92,000+$422,800-$372,000=$ 142,800.00
Answer:
71.57 days
Explanation:
For computing the average collection period first we have to determine the account receivable turnover ratio which is shown below:
Account receivable turnover ratio = Credit sales ÷ average accounts receivable
where,
Average accounts receivable = (Opening balance of Accounts receivable + ending balance of Accounts receivable) ÷ 2
= ($75,000 + $83,000) ÷ 2
= $79,000
And, the net credit sale is $403,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the answer would be equal to
= $403,000 ÷ $79,000
= 5.10 times
Now
Average collection period in days = Total number of days in a year ÷ accounts receivable turnover ratio
= 365 days ÷ 5.10 times
= 71.57 days
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being classified as a finance lease are:
(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term;
(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;
(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is not transferred;
(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and
(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications.
Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True
Answer: $2.1 million
Explanation:
It is mentioned the project is independent of the outcome of general market which means that
=> beta = 0
Using the CAPM formula which is,
r=rt + B* (rm -rf)
=> r = 3% + 0*(12%-3%) = 3%
Expected value of Project in one year = $1 billions * 0.1
Expected value of Project in one year = $100 millions
NPV = Expected value of Project in one year/ (1 + 0.03) - Initial cost
NPV = 100/ (1 + 0.03) - 95
NPV = 97.1 - 95
NPV = $2.1 million
