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Setler [38]
3 years ago
12

What is the solution to 4 superscript log subscript 4 baseline (x 8) baseline = 4 squared

Mathematics
1 answer:
Agata [3.3K]3 years ago
8 0

The solution to 4 superscript log subscript 4 baseline (x 8) baseline = 4 squared for the variable <em>x </em>is 8.

<h3>What is the exponent of log rule?</h3>

The exponent of the log rule says that the raising a logarithm with a number to its base is equal to the number.

For example, let <em>k</em> is the number and <em>a </em>is the base. Thus,

a^{\log a(k)}=k

The logarithmic equation given in the problem is,

4^{\log_4(x+8)}=4^2

Compare the equation with the expression of exponent of log rule, we get,

x+8=4^2\\x+8=16\\x=16-8\\x=8

Thus, the solution to 4 superscript log subscript 4 baseline (x 8) baseline = 4 squared for the variable <em>x </em>is 8.

Learn more about the rules of logarithmic function here;

brainly.com/question/13473114

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Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
4 years ago
PLEASE HELPPP
Scrat [10]
The answer is D because you can multiply the second equation by -4
6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Describe the graph of the function f(x) = x3 − 11x2 + 36x − 36. Include the y-intercept, x-intercepts, and the end behavior.
jenyasd209 [6]
The function is f(x)=x^3-11x^2+36x-36.

To find the x-intercepts, we need to factorize the function. A very good idea is to first try the factors of 36:

f(1)=1-11+36-36, not 0

f(2)=8-44+72-36=-36+72-36=0. Here we have our first root (2).

Now we cad divide f(x) by (x-2) which will give us a quadratic expression, which we can factorize easily (if the discriminant is non negative).

We can also try some other factors of 36. Indeed we can check that 

f(3)=27-99+108-36=135-135=0, 
and
f(6)=216-396+216-36=0.

Thus, f(x)=(x-2)(x-3)(x-6). Note that if we expanded the right hand side expression, the constant term would be the product of the constants 2, 3, 6.

This is the reason why in the first place we looked at the factors of 36 for the possible zeros of f(x).


Thus, the x-intercepts are (2, 0), (3, 0), (6, 0), or 2, 3, 6. 

The y-intercept is f(0), which is -36.


Note that f(0)<f(2) because f(0)=-36 and f(2)=0. This means that at the left side, the graph is coming from - infinity. Similarly, 

we can check that f(10)=1000-1100+360-36=224> f(6). That is, to the right of our rightmost root, the graph is getting larger.

Thus, the end behaviors are: the graph goes to + infinity as x goes to + infinity, 

and it goes to minus infinity as x goes to - infinity.
7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!! Isabell needs to memorize words on a vocabulary list for Spanish class. She has memorize 12 of the words, which
valina [46]

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

3 x 4 = 12

4 x 4 = 16

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help i really need help!
umka21 [38]
Whenever you are graphing an inequality,

< or > means the line is dotted
≤ or ≥ means the line is full and complete

The equation is x ≤ 3 so the answer is either A or B


x ≤ 3 means that x is less than or equal to 3, so the part that is shaded blue is supposed to be 3 and below.

The answer is A
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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