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belka [17]
2 years ago
7

If a coin is tossed, a die is rolled, and a candy is taken from

Mathematics
1 answer:
vesna_86 [32]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

⅛

Step-by-step explanation:

There are two sides of a coin which means that the profanity of getting one side of the coin is ½.

There are 14 candies in total of which 7 are red, meaning that the probability of getting a red candy is 7/14, which is the same as ½.

There are 6 sides to a die, of which 3 sides contain the odd numbers 1,3 and 5. This would mean that the probability of getting an odd number on the die is 3/6, which is the same as ½.

Now to work out the probability of getting a red candy, a heads and an odd number on the die, you have to times the probability of each together to get you final answer.

So it will be, ½×½×½=⅛

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Jason and Pam recently bought a house. They financed the house with a $250,000, 30-year mortgage with a nominal interest rate of
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Answer:

Annual payument (PMT)= $1,663.19

Step-by-step explanation:

Giving the following information:

Loan (PV)= $250,000

Monthly interest rate (i)= 0.07/12= 0.005833

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<u>To calculate the monthly payment, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Annual payument (PMT)= (PV*i) / [1 - (1+i)^(-n)]

Annual payument (PMT)= (250,000*0.005833) / [1 - (1.005833^-360)]

Annual payument (PMT)= $1,663.19

6 0
2 years ago
An electrician earns $110 after his first hour of working for a client. His total pay based on the number of hours worked can be
VLD [36.1K]
I don't like trying all of them so I will make up my own which will probably be in the answers 
so equation is
f(x)=pay
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they seem to be increasing in 20 increments so therefor the pay is linked to hours times 20 so that measn that every hour he works, he gets 20 dollars
therefor the answer is f(n+1)=f(n)+20 since we know that 1 hour=$20 so n+1hour=n+$20

the answe ris f(n+1)=f(n)+20

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3 years ago
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First, you would have to do 11x + 3x Since you're combining like terms.

Now your problem is 14x + 40 = -24

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Now you divide 14 by 64 and you get 4.5
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