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Law Incorporation [45]
2 years ago
5

Hi, can you please help me answer this direct proportion question?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Oksanka [162]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

X = 100

Step-by-step explanation:

  • In proportion questions, they want you to multiply one of the sides by a variable, (i usually represent it with K) and then change the proportion sign to an equal.
  • This is because proportional means they have a ratio between them, with one side increasing by "k" for each increase in the other side.
  1. Multiply the left by k, so y = \frac{k}{\sqrt{x} }
  2. we know that y= 5, for x = 36, so sub this in the equation
  3. 5 = \frac{k}{\sqrt{36} }
  4. simplify5 = \frac{k}{6 }
  5. re-arrange for k, <u>k = 5*6 = 30</u>
  6. now we know k, we can create the real equation, y = \frac{30}{\sqrt{x} }
  7. sub in 3 as y
  8. 3 = \frac{30}{\sqrt{x} }
  9. <u>x = 100</u>
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Answer:

k=5

Step-by-step explanation:

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Gre4nikov [31]
A random variable X following a binomial distribution with success probability p across n trials has PMF

\mathbb P(X=x)=\begin{cases}\dbinom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}&\text{for }x\in\{0,1,\ldots,n\}\\\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

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Because this is a proper distribution, you have

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\displaystyle\sum_{x=0}^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}
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\displaystyle\sum_{x=1}^n\frac{xn!}{x!(n-x)!}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
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Letting y=x-1, this becomes

\displaystyle np\sum_{y=0}^{n-1}\frac{(n-1)!}{y!((n-1)-y)!}p^y(1-p)^{(n-1)-y}

Observe that the remaining sum corresponds to the PMF of a new random variable Y which also follows a binomial distribution with success probability p, but this time across n-1 trials. Therefore the sum evaluates to 1, and you're left with np as the expression for the mean for X.
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4 years ago
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ValentinkaMS [17]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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<u>       +36           +36</u>

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