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mrs_skeptik [129]
2 years ago
8

Can yall help me with this math

Mathematics
1 answer:
kakasveta [241]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2 the change in expected height for every additional centimeter of femur length

Step-by-step explanation:

1 and 4 have 55 is the starting point but is just there to throw you off and 3 has expected femur length, but the graph says expected height

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Which of the following is an identity? A. sin2x sec2x + 1 = tan2x csc2x B. sin2x - cos2x = 1 C. (cscx + cotx)2 = 1 D. csc2x + co
Ne4ueva [31]
There are three 'Pythagorean' identities that we can look at and they are

sin²(x) + cos²(x) = 1
tan²(x) + 1 = sec²(x) 
1 + cot²(x) = csc²(x)

We can start by checking each option to see which one would give us any of the 'Pythagorean' identities as its simplest form

Option A:

sin²(x) sec²(x) + 1 = tan²(x) csc²(x)

Rewriting sec²(x) as 1/cos²(x)
Rewriting tan²(x) as sin²(x)/cos²(x)
Rewriting csc²(x) as 1/sin²(x)

We have

sin^{2}(x)[ \frac{1}{ cos^{2}(x) }]+1=[ \frac{ sin^{2}( x)}{ cos^{2} (x)}][ \frac{1}{ sin^{2}(x) } ]
[\frac{ sin^{2}(x) }{ cos^{2}(x) } ]+1= \frac{1}{ cos^{2}(x) }
tan^{2}(x)+1= sec^{2}(x)

Option B:

sin²(x) - cos²(x) = 1

This expression is already in the simplest form, cannot be simplified further

Option C:

[ csc(x) + cot(x) ]² = 1

Rewriting csc(x) as 1/sin(x)
Rewriting cot(x) as cos(x)/sin(x)

We have

[ \frac{1}{sin(x)}+ \frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}] ^{2} =1
\frac{1}{sin^2(x)}+2( \frac{1}{sin(x)})( \frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)})+ \frac{cos^2(x)}{sin^2(x)}=1csc^2(x)+2csc^2(x)cos(x)+cot^2(x)=1

Option D:

csc²(x) + cot²(x) = 1

Rewriting csc²(x) as 1/sin²(x) and cot²(x) as cos²(x)/sin²(x)

\frac{1}{sin^2(x)}+ \frac{cos^2(x)}{sin^2(x)}=1
\frac{1+cos^2(x)}{sin^2(x)} =1
1+cos^2(x)=sin^2(x)
1=sin^2(x)-cos^2(x)

from our working out we can see that option A simplified into one of 'Pythagorean' identities, hence the correct answer
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which math statement does not contain a variable?
rosijanka [135]

Answer: A. 17 - 17 = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

A variable is a number

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Evaluate the expressions:
Alika [10]

Answer:

96

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Equation

6 ( m - 4 )

Step 2: Given

m = 20

Step 3: Solve

6 ( 20 - 4 )

Step 4: Multiply

6 ( 16 )

Answer:

96

Hope This Helps :)

7 0
3 years ago
It twice the difference of a number and gig add to 4 the result is 22 more than four time the number. Find the number.
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

I have given the answer in the picture!

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey mate my answer is the correct one!

8 0
3 years ago
100 POINTS Motorola used the normal distribution to determine the probability of defects and the number of defects expected in a
kvv77 [185]

1. a) 0.3174 = 31.74% probability of a defect

1. b) The expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is of 317.

2. a) 0.0026 = 0.26% probability of a defect

2. b) The expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is of 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

When the distribution is normal, we use the z-score formula.

In a set with mean  and standard deviation , the zscore of a measure X is given by:

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Question 1:

We have that:

a. Calculate the probability of a defect.

Less than 9.88 or greater than 10.12. These probabilities are equal, so we find one and multiply by 2.

Probability of less than 9.88:

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 9.88. So

has a pvalue of 0.1587

2*0.1587 = 0.3174

0.3174 = 31.74% probability of a defect

b. Calculate the expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run.

The expected number of defects is 31.74% of 1000. So

0.3174*1000 = 317.4

Rounding to the nearest integer

The expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is of 317.

Question 2:

The mean remains the same, but the standard deviation is now

a. Calculate the probability of a defect.

Less than 9.88 or greater than 10.12. These probabilities are equal, so we find one and multiply by 2.

Probability of less than 9.88:

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 9.88. So

has a pvalue of 0.0013

2*0.0013 = 0.0026

0.0026 = 0.26% probability of a defect

b. Calculate the expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run.

The expected number of defects is 31.74% of 1000. So

0.0026*1000 = 2.6

Rounding to the nearest integer

The expected number of defects for a 1,000-unit production run is of 3.

7 0
3 years ago
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