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True [87]
2 years ago
9

The marginal revenue curve for a monopolist is greater than the price because the monopolist faces a downward sloping demand cur

ve for its product.Group startsTrue or False
Business
1 answer:
frozen [14]2 years ago
3 0

It is a false statement that the marginal revenue curve for a monopolist is greater than the price because the monopolist faces a downward sloping.

<h3>Why is it a false statement? </h3>

The situation is that the marginal revenue curve for a monopolist are always less than the price.

This is because for each additional unit of output the marginal revenue is declining its results from the downward sloping market demand curve.

Therefore, the statement given is a false statement.

Read more about marginal revenue

<em>brainly.com/question/10822075</em>

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Me-Mirror, Mirror on the wall, who’s the fairest of them all?
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

what?

Explanation:

4 0
4 years ago
List at least four investment alternatives.
Ierofanga [76]
Four investment alternatives are hedge funds, futures, stocks, and bonds. If you are looking for more: mutual funds, annuities, and real estate are others.
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Mantle Company has been in business several years. At the end of the current year; the unadjusted trial balance shows:
maksim [4K]

Answer:

  • a. Bad debts are estimated to be 7% of RECEIVABLES  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 16.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 16.000

Explanation:

December 31  

Cr Sales Revenue $ 2.200.000

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 310.000

Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $ 5.700

 

a. Bad debts are estimated to be 7% of RECEIVABLES  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 16.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 16.000

 

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % estimated of accounts receivables as CREDIT.  

Because the company already has a CREDIT balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts it's necessary to register an entry that complement the existing value and reflect the value as % of account receivable.  

 

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.  

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."  

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets  

 

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.  

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)  

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.  

8 0
3 years ago
On February 1, 2021, Strauss-Lombardi issued 8% bonds, dated February 1, with a face amount of $810,000. The bonds sold for $735
Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer and Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Interest paid semiannually on July 31, and Jan 31,

so the rate of interest is :- 9% × 6÷12 = 4.5%  and  8% × 6÷12 = 4%

Date    Interest         Paid interest 4%         Amortized         Carrying value

       expenses 4.50%                             discount amount

February,1                                                    $735,474

July,31 $33,096   -   $32,400                    $696            $736,170

Jan.31      $33,128   -   $32,400                    $728            $736,898

Working note =

Paid interest = $810,000 × 4÷100 = 32,400

Interest expenses in July,31 = $735,474 × 4.5 ÷ 100

= 33,096.33 or $33,096

Interest expenses in January,31 = $736,170 × 4.5÷100

= 33,127.65 or $33,128

Carrying Value = Previous Carrying Value + Amortized Discount Amount

July,31

= $735,474 + $696

= $736,170

Jan,31 =  $736,170 + $728 = $736,898

Journal Entry

Feb,1  Cash A/c Dr. $735,474

  Discount on bonds payable A/c Dr. $74,526

  To bonds payable A/c      $810,000

         (To Record the issuance of bond)

July,31 Interest expense A/c Dr. $33,096

     To Discount on bonds payable A/c  $696

     To Cash A/c $32,400

            (To Record the interest expense)

Dec,31  Interest expense A/c Dr. $27,606

      (9% × 5÷12) × $736,170

     To Discount on bonds payable A/c $606

     To Cash A/c $27,000    (8% × 5÷12) × $810,000  

           (To Record the accrued interest)

Jan,31  Interest expense A/c Dr. $5,522

    Interest payable A/c Dr. $27,000

    To Cash A/c $32,400

    To Discount on bonds payable A/c $122

 ($728 - $606) = $122

          (To Record the interest on January)

8 0
3 years ago
eriod costs ________. should be treated as an indirect cost rather than as a direct manufacturing cost seldom influence financia
Serhud [2]

Answer:

include the cost of selling, delivering, and after-sales support for customers

Explanation:

The period cost is the cost which includes the major part of the selling and admin expenses plus it is also not capitalized and can be incurred according to the passage of time

So as per the given situation, the third option is correct as it includes the selling, delivering cost and after sales support

Therefore all the other options are wrong

6 0
3 years ago
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