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alekssr [168]
2 years ago
15

Why does Prof. St. Clair argue that allowing Lehman Brothers Investment Bank to fail in 2008 (i.e., during the Bush Administrati

on) was a terrible decision?
Business
1 answer:
snow_lady [41]2 years ago
6 0

According to Prof. St. Clair, allowing Lehman Brothers to fail in 2008 breached the Fed's primary mandate, and worsened the financial crisis of 2008.

<h3>What caused the Lehman Brothers' failure?</h3>

The main cause of the failure of Lehman Brothers Investment Bank was its involvement in the subprime mortgage market.

Lehmann Brothers recorded unprecedented loss due to the 2008 subprime mortgage crisis.

The investment bank held onto large positions in subprime and other lower-rated mortgage tranches when securitizing the underlying mortgages.

Thus, according to Prof. St. Clair, allowing Lehman Brothers to fail in 2008 was a terrible decision because its failure breached the Fed's primary mandate, and worsened the financial crisis of 2008.

Learn more about Lehman Brothers' Failure at brainly.com/question/7550583

#SPJ1

You might be interested in
ABC Inc. just paid a dividend of $1.00 this year. The stock price is $15.43 currently. The market risk premium is 15% and the ri
mariarad [96]

Answer:

Price lowers and becomes negative or -5.37 dollars

Explanation:

Market risk premium's formula could be written as dividends/price + dividend's growth rate. Therefore, we dividend growth rate according to the current price and dividend level equal to market risk premium - dividends/price or 0.15 - 1/15.43 = 0.086 or 8.6%. If the dividend growth rate rises by 25% than new one is 33.6%. Price is equal to dividends/market risk premium - dividend growth rate or in this case 1/0.15-0.336 or 1/-0.186 or -5.37 dollars. If the price is negative that would mean that any future selling of the stock would mean that ABC would have to pay in order to sell it.

4 0
3 years ago
Which sequence describes the long-run adjustment process in a competitive market when firms are experiencing short-run economic
dedylja [7]

Answer:

b. some firms exit, industry supply decreases, market price rises.

Explanation:

A perfect competitive industry is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. There are no barriers to entry or exit of firms.

If firms are making economic loss is the short run, in the long run, firms leave the industry. This leads to a fall in supply and prices rise as a result. In the long run, firms in a competitive industry earn zero economic profit.

I hope my answer helps you

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose Stark Ltd. just issued a dividend of $2.57 per share on its common stock. The company paid dividends of $2.20, $2.31, $2
crimeas [40]

Answer:

Answer:

Growth rate (g) = n-1√(<u>Latest dividend)</u>     - 1

                                      Current  dividend

                          = 4-1√($2.49/2.20)   -1  

                         = 3√(1.1318)  -1  

                        = 1.04  -  1

                        = 0.04 = 4%

Ke = Do<u>(1 + g) </u>  +  g

               Po

Ke =  $2.57(<u>1  +  0.04</u>)  + 0.04

                         65

Ke = 0.04 + 0.04

Ke = 0.08 = 8%

Explanation:

In this  case, we need to calculate the growth rate using the above formula. Then, the cost of equity will be  calculated. Cost of equity is a function of current dividend paid subject to growth rate divided by current market price.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Data from the financial statements of Crafty Crafts and Hobbies, Inc. are presented below (in millions): Crafty Crafts Hobbies,
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

Crafty Crafts:

Return on Assets Ratio = Net Income/Average Assets x 100

= $1,040/46,350 x 100

= 2.2%

Explanation:

a) Data

                                       Crafty Crafts          Hobbies, Inc.

Total liabilities, 2016            $31,957               $25,461

Total liabilities, 2015              36,104                 30,046

Total assets, 2016                 46,186                 32,872

Total assets, 2015                 46,514                 35,208

Net sales, 2016                    161,466                  81,702

Net income, 2016                    1,040                    1,766

b) Average Assets:

Crafty Crafts = (2016 + 2015 assets)/2 = ($46,186 + 46,514)/2 = $46,350

c) The Return on Assets Ratio: This financial performance ratio shows how much of the earnings is generated from the assets of the company in a particular period.  It shows the efficiency of management to generate profit from the assets.  Usually, the average assets value is used to even the variations over the period.

5 0
3 years ago
In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0
2 years ago
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