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tia_tia [17]
4 years ago
7

If government policy allows a country's currency to be determined in the exchange rate market, then that currency will be subjec

t to:
A) a hard peg policy.
B) purchasing power parity.
C) depreciation.
D) a floating exchange rate.
Business
1 answer:
Marrrta [24]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is D) a floating exchange rate.

Explanation:

The floating exchange rate is a characteristic of the currency that is not determined by any central bank, but from operations of supply and demand of the currencies in a stock exchange or the exchange market. This behavior is determined by internal factors and uncertainty such as inflation or natural phenomena, oil behavior, etc.

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Suppose the price of movie tickets decline. The income effect means that :
puteri [66]

Answer:

a would be the answer for the question

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3 years ago
A hairdryer manufacturer produced a new model that could dry a person's hair in under five minutes. When customers used this hai
skad [1K]

Answer: Fairness and Honesty

Explanation:

Fairness and honesty are vital to every business ethics and it related to thee general values of the decision makers. Firms are expected to follow applicable laws and regulations and are expected not to cause harm or injury to employees, customers, clients, or competitors through coercion, deception,misrepresentation, or discrimination.

False and misleading advertising can lead to business failure, hence, Truthfulness about a produt's safety and its quality are also vital to consumers.

8 0
4 years ago
Consider the following statements regarding Company A and Company B:The two companies have identical operating results but have
Natalija [7]

Answer:

A. A only

Explanation:

U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) does not allow property, plant, and equipment to be written up or revalued. If the fair value of PP&E falls below the book value and the amount is material then a company must write down the asset to fair value.

Since under US GAAP, once PPE is written, it can not be reversed. as Company B is indicated to have reversed the write down while company A did not. It therefore means that Company A only is reporting under US GAAP.

7 0
4 years ago
The following items are reported on a company's balance sheet: Cash $225,000 Marketable securities 115,000 Accounts receivable (
aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

Current ratio is 2.5:1

Quick ratio 1.9:1

Explanation:

Current ratio =current assets/current laibilities:1

current assets =cash+marketable securities+accounts receivables+inventory

current assets=$225000+$115,000+$112000+$158,000

current assets =$610,000

current liabilities=accounts payable=$244,000

Current ratio=610000/244000

current ratio=2.5 :1

quick ratio =(current assets-inventory)/current liabilities:1

quick ratio=(610000-158000)/244000

                =1.9:1

The current ratio suggests the company has liquid resources that is more than double of current liabilities which can used in discharging debt obligations in the normal course of business

Quick ratio excludes inventory from the ratio since inventory is most difficult item to convert to cash

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two investment advisers are comparing performance. Adviser A averaged a 20% return with a portfolio beta of 1.5, and adviser B a
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

Option A is the correct answer.

A. Advisor A was better because he generated a larger alpha.

Explanation:

To determine which adviser would be the better stock selector, we will calculate the required rate of return of each adviser and the return actually averaged. The adviser with the greater abnormal return, which is return in excess of required rate, will be the better stock selector.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

  • rRF is the risk free rate
  • rM is the market return

r of Adviser A = 0.05 + 1.5 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser A = 0.17 or 17%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser A = 20% - 17% = 3%

r of Adviser B = 0.05 + 1.2 * (0.13 - 0.05)

r of Adviser B = 0.146 or 14.6%

Abnormal or excess return of Adviser B = 15% - 14.6% = 0.4%

Adviser A performed better as the excessive return or alpha of Adviser A was 3% while that of Adviser B was 0.4%

7 0
3 years ago
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