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Arlecino [84]
2 years ago
6

What identifies the flow of critical business data

Business
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]2 years ago
3 0

Based on an information management system, Business Continuity Planning identifies the flow of critical business data.

This is because Business continuity planning is a method or strategy that allows the business manager to identify their critical processes.

Business continuity planning establishes operation duration for different activities relating to business continuity, such as outages, contact data, and partners involved in the risk of supporting vital continuity services.

Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is "Business Continuity Planning."

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/12068803

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The results for conventional and activity-based costing (ABC) computations will be the same as long as: a.the levels of activity
aniked [119]

Answer:

d.the levels of activity for non-unit based cost drivers remain the same.

Explanation:

In the case of conventional and activity based costing calculations,  the output should be similar to the activity levels that belong to the non-unit in which the cost driver should remain the same

Thus as per the given scenario, the option d is correct

And, the rest of the options seems incorrect

4 0
3 years ago
How would you define customer satisfaction?
wlad13 [49]

Answer:

Customer satisfaction is defined as a measurement that determines how happy customers are with a company's products, services, and capabilities. Customer satisfaction information, including surveys and ratings, can help a company determine how to best improve or changes its products and services.

3 0
3 years ago
Shakira has a balance of $202. 86 in her checking account on Saturday morning. She uses her debit card to pay her cell phone bil
Nataly [62]

Overdraft is a facility provided by bank to make expenses more than that of the balance present in the account of customers. This facility is provided to certain specified customers with high credibility.

Given

Balance is $202.86

Note: Payments will be recognized in descending order because it is the policy of bank to record the highest transaction first.

Payments made are :

$113.92

$80.73

$35.24

$16.89

<h3>Calculations</h3>

\begin{aligned}\rm Overdraft&= Balance - Payments \\\\&#10;\rm Overdraft&= \$202.86-\$113.92-\$80.73-\$35.24-\$16.89\\&#10;\\\rm Overdraft&= \$ -43.92\end

Therefore Shakira will be allowed to overdraw from the account as the amount of overdraft is less than $50.

Elaborating further, When we deduct the payments from the balance in descending order we reach on a conclusion that there will be 2 overdrafts made because after deducting $113.92 and $80.73 from the balance amount of $202.86 there will be 2 payments pending amounting $35.24 and $16.89 from the left balance of $ 8.21.

Therefore the correct option will be OPTION B i.e. 2 overdrafts.

Learn more about overdrafts here:

brainly.com/question/14182019

7 0
2 years ago
Here are three things you could do if you do not attend your neighbor's barbecue: watch television with some friends (you value
Colt1911 [192]

Answer: Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Alternatives for a person if he do not attend his neighbor's barbecue:

(1) Watch television with some friends = he value this at $17

(2) Read a good novel = he value this at $14

(3) Go in to work = he could earn $16 during the barbecue

Opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone for an individual by choosing one alternative over other alternatives available to him.

If the opportunity cost is lower for an individual then this will benefit him whereas if the opportunity cost is higher then this will not benefit the individuals.

Therefore, the opportunity cost of going to his neighbor's barbecue is the enjoyment he get from watching television with some friends because this is the highest valued alternative forfeited.

7 0
3 years ago
Special Plc has an issued share capital at 1 January 2019 of 1,000,000 ordinary shares of 20p each and 50,000 convertible prefer
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

A. £4.15

B.£4

Explanation:

A. Calculation for the diluted EPS for 2019

Using this formula

2019 Diluted EPS =(Earnings after tax for the year ended-Preferred Dividends)/Total Diluted Shares Outstanding

Let plug in the formula

2019 Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£2.50 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*500/£1,000)+(50,000*£1)]

2019 Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£2.50 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*0.5)+(50,000*£1)]

2019 Diluted EPS=[(£5,000,000-£125,000)/(£1,000,000+£125,000+£50,000)]

2019 Diluted EPS=£4,875,000/£1,175,000

2019 Diluted EPS=£4.15

Therefore 2019 Diluted EPS (Earning per share) will be £4.15

B. Calculation for the diluted EPS assuming that the convertible preference shares were receiving a dividend of £6 per share instead of £2.50.

Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£6 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*500/£1,000)+(50,000*£1)]

Diluted EPS=[£5,000,000-(£6 per share*50,000)/£1,000,000+ (£250,000*0.5)+(50,000*£1)]

Diluted EPS=[(£5,000,000-£300,000)/(£1,000,000+£125,000+£50,000)]

Diluted EPS=£4,700,000/£1,175,000

Diluted EPS=£4

Therefore the Diluted EPS (Earning per share) will be £4

6 0
3 years ago
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