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larisa [96]
2 years ago
8

A company purchased $1,800 of merchandise on July 5 with terms 2/10, n/30. On July 7, it returned $200 worth of merchandise. On

July 28, it paid the full amount due. Assuming the company uses a perpetual inventory system, and records purchases using the gross method, The correct journal entry to record the purchase on July 5 is: _____________
a) Debit Accounts Payable $1,800; credit Purchase Returns $200; credit Merchandise Inventory $1,600.
b) Debit Accounts Payable $1,800; credit Merchandise Inventory $1,800.
c) Debit Merchandise Inventory $1,800; credit Accounts Payable $1,800.
d) Debit Merchandise Inventory $1,800; credit Sales Returns $200; credit Cash $1,600.
e) Debit Merchandise Inventory $1,600; credit Cash $1,600.
Business
1 answer:
sashaice [31]2 years ago
8 0

Based on the purchase details by the company, the correct journal entry to record the purchase on July 5 is c) Debit Merchandise Inventory $1,800; credit Accounts Payable $1,800.

<h3>Why is this the correct journal entry?</h3>

On July 5, the amount that was purchased was still $1,800. Nothing had been returned yet. The amount that will be debited to Merchandising as an asset will therefore be $1,800.

The Accounts Payable account will be credited the same amount to reflect that the company owes money for the purchase.

In conclusion, option C is correct.

Find out more on recording purchasing it brainly.com/question/25556036.

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On January 1, Martinez Inc. issued $3,000,000, 11% bonds for $3,195,000. The market rate of interest for these bonds is 10%. Int
krok68 [10]

Answer:

correct option is b. $184,500

Explanation:

given data

issued amount =  $3,000,000

rate = 11%

bonds for = $3,195,000

market rate of interest = 10 %

solution

firs we get here Cash paid that is  

Cash paid = $3,000,000 × 11%

Cash paid  = $330,000

and

Interest expense will be

Interest expense =  $3,195,000 × 10%

Interest expense  = $319,500

so premium amortization is

premium amortization =  $330,000 - $319,500

premium amortization  = $11,500

and premium over the 3 million = 195,000

so

New premium will be as

New premium  = $195,000 - $11,500

New premium = $184,500

so correct option is b. $184,500

3 0
3 years ago
The Quorum Company has a prospective 6-year project that requires initial fixed assets costing $962,000, annual fixed costs of $
diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670

Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}

= inflows * 3.8887

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 =  962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is false? Multiple Choice The short run refers to a period of less than one year. In the long
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

The short run refers to a period of less than one year.

Explanation:

The statements is false that the short run refers to a period of less than one year.

The short run, long run and very long run are different time periods in economics.

<u>Short run – where one factor of production (e.g. capital) is fixed</u>.

long run – Where all factors of production are variable,

Unlike in accounting where operating period refer to a period of one year, <u> there is no hard and fast definition as to what is classified as "long" or "short" and mostly relies on the economic perspective being taken.</u>

7 0
3 years ago
You need to accumulate $10,000. To do so, you plan to make deposits of $1,500 per year - with the first payment being made a yea
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

5.4 years

Explanation:

Future value is the value of the calculated by compounding a specific present value using a specific discount rate

Payment = $1,500

Rate = 9.56%

Future value = $10,000

We will use the following formula to calculate the numbers of years.

Future Value = Payment x [ ( 1  + r)^n - 1 / r ]

$10,000 = $1,500 x [ ( 1 + 9.56%)^n - 1 / 9.56%

$10,000 x 9.56% / 1,500 = ( 1 + 9.56%)^n - 1

0.6373 +1 = 1.0956^n

1.6373 = 1.0956^n

Log 1.6373 = n log 1.0956

n = log 1.0956 / Log 1.6373

n = 5.4 years

7 0
3 years ago
Escalation bias refers to the situation in which:_______. a. investors put more money into a failure rather than into a success.
olchik [2.2K]

Answer:

a. investors put more money into a failure rather than into a success.

Explanation:

The escalation bias is a part of behavioral finance. In this the investor is not accepting their mistake if they had done any kind of mistake. Rather accepting it they put more money in the asset that performed poorly also at the same time the bad news is ignored by them, they only focused to invest more and more in the stocks

hence, the correct option is a

4 0
3 years ago
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