Answer:
Company 1 = $2 per share
Company 2 = $2.50 per share
Explanation:
Given that,
EBIT for both companies = $1,000
Number of shares outstanding for company 1 = 500
Number of shares outstanding for company 2 = 300
Interest paid by company 2 = $250
EPS for company 1:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $0) ÷ 500
= $2 per share
EPS for company 2:
= (Total income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Shares outstanding
= ($1,000 - $250) ÷ 300
= $750 ÷ 300
= $2.50 per share
Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Each ceiling fan has 20 separate parts.
The direct materials cost is $ 85
Each ceiling fan requires 3 hours of machine time to manufacture.
Activity (Allocation Base) - Predetermined Overhead Allocation Rate
Materials handling (Number of parts) - $0.04
Machining (Machine hours) - $7.8
Assembling (Number of parts) - $0.35
Packaging (Number of finished units) - $3
Total unitary cost= direct material + allocated overhead
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Total unitary cost= 85 + (0.04*20 + 7.8*3 + 0.35*20 + 3*1)= $119.2
Answer:
12.93%
Explanation:
Given that the amount of 300 is invested for 3 years, while the amount of 100 is invested for 2 years and 100 is invested for 1 year.
also amount accumulated in three years = 800
Applying the formula to find the future value we get
300(1+r)^3 + 200(1+r)^2 + 100(1+r) = 800
which can be further simplified to
300r^3+1100r^2+1400r+600=800
where, r is the effective rate of interest which we have to find out
The above equation is cubic in r, so to solve this we can use equation solver. When we put this equation in equation solver we get
r = 0.12926
r ≅ 0.1293
Therefore, effective rate of interest = 12.93%
Answer:
$0
Explanation:
Variance overhead efficiency variance = (Standard hours - Actual hours) * Standard variable overhead rate
= (6,000 hours * $1) - 6,000 hours * $5
= (6,000 hours - 6,000 hours) * $5
= 0 * $5
= $0
Thus, the Variance overhead efficiency variance = $0
