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2 years ago

This information relates to Sage Hill Co.

Business

1 answer:

fiasKO [112]2 years ago

3 0

The preparation of the journal entries to record the transactions of Sage Hill Co. are as follows:

<h3>Journal Entries:</h3>

April 5 Debit Inventory $27,900

Credit Accounts Payable (Oriole Company) $27,900

Credit terms 4/10, n/30.

April 6, Debit Freight-in $520

Credit Cash $520

April 7, Debit Equipment $32,700

Credit Accounts Payable $32,700

April 8, Debit Accounts Payable (Oriole Company) $4,800

Credit Inventory $4,800

April 15, Debit Accounts Payable (Oriole Company) $23,100

Credit Cash $22,176

Credit Cash Discounts $924

<h3>Transaction Analysis:</h3>

April 5 Inventory $27,900 Accounts Payable (Oriole Company) $27,900

Credit terms 4/10, n/30.

April 6, Freight-in $520 Cash $520

April 7, Equipment $32,700 Accounts Payable $32,700

April 8, Accounts Payable (Oriole Company) $4,800 Inventory $4,800

April 15, Accounts Payable (Oriole Company) $23,100 Cash $22,176 Cash Discounts $924

Learn more about recording transactions at brainly.com/question/24835236

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disposable income (billions of dollars per year) total consumption (billions of dollars per year) $ 0 $ 50 200 210(table 9.1) wh

katovenus [111]

C = 50 + 0.8Y is the consumption function that is consistent with the provided data. The MPC is determined by subtracting the change in consumption from the change in disposable income, which equals 160/200, or 0.8.

Marginal propensity calculation.

$200 billion less $0 billion equals $200 billion in changes to disposable income.

Consumption change equals $210 minus $50, or $160 billion.

MPC = Change in Consumption/Change in Disposable Income, which equals $160 billion/$200 billion and is equal to 0.8.

There is a 0.8 marginal tendency to consume.

Step 2

This is how consumption function is defined.

C = a + bY

Where,

a = Consumption at zero income level

b = MPC

In given case,

$50 billion would be consumed at a level of income zero.

MPC is 0.8

So,

C = 50 + 0.8Y is the consumption function that matches the provided data.

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1 year ago

Which of the following answer options are your employer's responsibility? (OSHA)

Dmitrij [34]

Answer: A, B, and C. ALL OF THE ABOVE!

Explanation:

They're all the correct answer.

3 0

3 years ago

Bartoletti Fabrication Corporation has a standard cost system in which it applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basi

vazorg [7]

Answer:

Total of the variable overhead rate and fixed manufacturing overhead budget variances for the month = $9,096 Unfavorable

Explanation:

Actual variable overhead rate = $\frac{Actual variable overhead}{Actual Hours}$ = $\frac{66,170}{6,400} = 10.34$

Therefore variance with the budgeted standard variable overhead

= (Standard Overhead rate - Actual overhead rate) $\times$ Actual Hours

= ($9.70 - $10.34) $\times$ 6,400 = -$4,096

And Fixed Overhead variance = Standard Fixed Overhead - Actual Fixed Overhead = $69,000 - $74,000 = -$5,000

Total of the variable overhead rate and fixed manufacturing overhead budget variances for the month = -$4,096 + -$5,000 = -$9,096

Since the value of variance is negative it means the expense both variable and fixed are over absorbed, which means it is unfavorable.

Total of the variable overhead rate and fixed manufacturing overhead budget variances for the month = $9,096 Unfavorable

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3 years ago

Your only child will go to college 10 years from now. Your salary is $80,000 a year, and is expected to rise with inflation, whi

Cerrena [4.2K]

Answer:

60.60%

Explanation:

The computation of the percentage of your salary would go to pay for the first year of your child's college education is given below:

The salary after 10 years would be

= 80000 × 1.03^10

= 107513.31.

Now Similarly, the college fees after 10 years would be

= 40000 × 1.05^10

= 65155.78.

So, the percentage would be

= 65155.78 ÷ 107513.31

= 60.60%

6 0

3 years ago

The bonds of Topstone Industries are currently selling for 103.3 percent of their face value. These bonds mature in 14 years and

just olya [345]

Answer:

A.) 6.63%

Explanation:

Using a Financial calculator, key in the following inputs to solve for YTM;

Face value of the bond ; FV = 1,000

Price of the bond; PV= 103.3% *1,000 = -1,033

Total duration or time to maturity of the bond; N = 14 years

Use annual coupon rate to find Coupon payment (PMT);

Coupon PMT = coupon rate * Face value

coupon rate = 7% OR 0.07 as a decimal

Coupon PMT = 0.07 *1,000 = 70

Next, with these inputs, press on buttons; CPT I/Y = 6.631%

Therefore, the Pre-tax cost of debt = 6.63%

5 0

3 years ago