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1 year ago

An angle measures 132° more than the measure of its supplementary angle. What is the measure of each angle?

Mathematics

1 answer:

babymother [125]1 year ago

8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the angle = (x - 132)°

⇒ x + x - 132 = 180

⇒ 2x = 180 + 132

⇒ 2x = 312

⇒ x = 312/2

⇒ x = 156°

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Im willing to give 20 points maybe even more

Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

Equations are

20c + 10m = 495..............(1)

8c + 1m = 178.5.................(2)

Now , equation (2) * 10 = 80c + 10m = 1785...........(3)

So, Eq. (3) - Eq(1) =

80c + 10m - 20c - 10m = 1785 - 495

60c = 1290

c= 21.5

********************************************************

Now place the value of c in Eq (2)

So , m =6.5

Mark my answer as brainlist answer

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Is 8:7 equal to 15:16

Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

Absolutely not because
if you see as fraction
8/7 and 15/16 is not equal at all
if it had to be equal if should've been 16/14

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3 years ago

Katie is k years old. Harry is 4 years older than Katie. Rachel is twice as old as Harry. If you add together the ages of Katie,

vichka [17]

K+(k+4)+2k=36
4k+4=36
4k=36-4
4k=32
k=8

5 0

3 years ago

if you roll a fair 6-sided die 9 times, what is the probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4?

Kay [80]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.857 = 85.7% probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4.

For each die, there are only two possible outcomes, either a 3 or a 4 is rolled, or it is not. The result of a roll is independent of any other roll, hence, the <em>binomial distribution</em> is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.

n is the number of trials.

p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

There are 9 rolls, hence $n = 9$ .

Of the six sides, 2 are 3 or 4, hence $p = \frac{2}{6} = 0.3333$

The desired probability is:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which:

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

Then

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{9,0}.(0.3333)^{0}.(0.6667)^{9} = 0.026$

$P(X = 1) = C_{9,1}.(0.3333)^{1}.(0.6667)^{8} = 0.117$

Then:

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.026 + 0.117 = 0.143$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.143 = 0.857$

0.857 = 85.7% probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4.

For more on the binomial distribution, you can check brainly.com/question/24863377

7 0

2 years ago

Brian flips a fair coin 3 times. What is the probability of getting exactly 1 tail?

Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step

he flips the coin three time and there is one side so 1/3

3 0

3 years ago