1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
topjm [15]
3 years ago
11

Find the stem and leaf giving brainlest

Mathematics
1 answer:
lorasvet [3.4K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Problem 20: 3 numbers in the data have 3 in the ones place

Problem 21: 3 numbers in the data have 5 in the ones place

You might be interested in
A bicyclist covered 5/7 of his route and an additional 40 miles. He has yet to cover 118 miles less than 0.75 of his route. How
kondaur [170]

Answer:

6 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the route length be r.  The distance the cyclist has already covered is then (5/7)r + 40.  This plus 0.75r - 118 must = r, the length of the entire route.

Then:

(5/7)r + 40 + (3/4)r - 118 = r

The LCD of the fractions 5/7 and 3/4 is 28.  We thus have:

(20/28)r + 40 + (21/28)r - 118 = r, or

(41/28)r - 78 = (28/28)r

Combining the r terms, we get 13r = 78, and so r = 78/13 = 6.

The cyclist's bike route is 6 miles long.

4 0
3 years ago
Millie went shopping and took £60 to spend. she spent 1/2 of her money on a pair of shoes, she then spent 2/3 of what she had le
Stels [109]
Total expenses;
1/2*60=30
2/3*30=20
Total = 50

Remainder;
60-50
<span>£</span>10
3 0
3 years ago
with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee
prohojiy [21]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts  

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And using the complement rule we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probability like this:

P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X

7 0
3 years ago
Find value of X? Round answer to nearest tenth.
ohaa [14]

Answer: x = 4.6

Step-by-step explanation:

From the diagram opposite is 4

Adjacent is x

@ = 41 degrees.

Solve from SOH CAH TOA

From here the one that has opposite and adjacent is TOA which is;

[email protected] = opposite/ adjacent

[email protected] = 4/x

x = 4/[email protected]

x = 4/tan 41

x = 4/0.869

x = 4.6

6 0
3 years ago
Tran checked the time on his watch after he finished his daily run select the time that Tran finished running mark all that appl
Viefleur [7K]

Answer:

(a) and (b) are correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

See attachment for complete question

Required

Select the correct options

A clock is divided into two equal parts.

(1) 1 - 6

(2) 7 - 12

<em>When the hour hand is on (1), then the time is "after"</em>

<em>When the hour hand is on (2), then the time is "before"</em>

<em />

From the attached clock, we have:

(1) The hour hand on 9

(2) The minute hand 1 unit above 9 i.e. 46 minutes

(1) implies that, the time is before 9 i.e. past 8

(2) implies that the minutes is (60 - 46) before 9 or 46 minutes after 8

In (1) and (2) above, we have two interpretations.

1: (60 - 46) minutes before 9

This gives:

14 minutes before 9

2: 46 minutes past 8

i.e. 8 : 46

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • 8) Lucy is 48 inches tall. Charlie is x inches taller. Which expression represents Charlie's
    14·1 answer
  • Oley Scotchgard sells TV's. He earns a 4.5% commission on sales. If his sales last week were $9000, how much did Oley earn?
    7·1 answer
  • Please help 12 points!!!!!
    14·1 answer
  • What is the diameter of this circle if the circumference is 30 pi inches? A circle. C = 30 pi in. 15 in. 30 in. 45 in. 60 in.
    9·2 answers
  • What is the maximum height of of Anna's golf ball? The equation is y=x−0.04x2.
    11·1 answer
  • Write the quadratic function in the form g(x) = a (x-h)^2 +k.
    10·1 answer
  • 50 points!! If you can help me with math that will be great! :)
    5·1 answer
  • In Mr. Hamilton's classroom, there are 16 supply boxes in the cabinet. Each supply box
    11·1 answer
  • Im giving Brainliest to the correct answer
    5·1 answer
  • Write <br> 41/8<br> as a mixed number.
    5·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!