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faltersainse [42]
3 years ago
8

Sakima Lena is employed at a restaurant. He has family medical coverage through the company’s group medical plan. The annual cos

t of Sakima’s family coverage is $3,700. The company pays 35% of the cost. How much does Sakima pay annually for medical insurance?

Mathematics
1 answer:
omeli [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: $2405

Step-by-step explanation: explanation is in the attached picture file

You might be interested in
Find the GCF ( Greatest Common Factor)<br><br><br>18;45<br><br><br>24;16
nika2105 [10]
18;45 = 9

24;16 = 8

I hope this helps
8 0
4 years ago
A new vehicle is worth $2500. If it depreciates records in value 12% per year, after 6 years what will it be worth
Margaret [11]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2500 - 12%

12% of 2500 = 300

2500 - 300 = 2200

12% of 2200 = 264

2200-264=1936

Repeat another 4 times

8 0
3 years ago
In 3-way light bulbs, the highest wattage is the sum of the two lower ones. If the lowest is 60 watts, and the highest 150 watts
otez555 [7]
Since 150= 60 +x
x=110
3 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
Calculate the value of 1/3 a = -5
sladkih [1.3K]

Answer:

- 15

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{1}{3} a =  - 5 \\  \\ a =  - 5 \times 3 \\  \\ a =  - 15

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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