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ludmilkaskok [199]
3 years ago
8

The sum is greater than 8

Mathematics
1 answer:
lawyer [7]3 years ago
5 0

your answer would be :9, 10, 11, 12

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Suppose you invest $16000 at 9% interest and that it is compounded daily. How much will you have in 8 years?
kramer

Answer:

The amount after 8 years is $ 16,031.579

Step-by-step explanation:

Given as :

The Principal invested = $ 16000

The rate of interest compounded daily = 9 %

The time period = 8 years

Let The amount after 8 years = $ A

<u>From Compounded method </u>

Amount = Principal invested × (1+\dfrac{\textrm Rate}{365\times 100})^{365\times \textrm Time}

Or, Amount = 16000 × (1+\dfrac{\textrm 9}{365\times 100})^{365\times \textrm 8}

Or, Amount = 16000 × (1.0002465)^{8}

∴  Amount = $ 16,031.579

Hence The amount after 8 years is $ 16,031.579   Answer

4 0
3 years ago
Can a chord also be classified as a radius?
klemol [59]
No.

A chord is a straight segment that joins two points of the circumference. It starts at a point in the circumference and ends at other point in the circumference.

The radius goes from the center of the circle (which is not on the circumference) to one point of the circumference.

The diameter is a chord (the largest chord possible); but not the radius.
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Backgammon is a board game for two players in which the playing pieces are moved according to the roll of two dice. players win
Ivahew [28]

The rolls of the dice are independent, i.e. the outcome of the second die doesn't depend in any way on the outcome of the first die.

In cases like this, the probability of two events happening one after the other is the multiplication of the probabilities of the two events.

So, the probability of rolling two 6s is the multiplication of the probabilities of rolling a six with the first die, and another six with the second:

P(\text{rolling two 6s}) = P(\text{rolling a 6}) \cdot P(\text{rolling a 6}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

Similarly,

P(\text{rolling two 3s}) = P(\text{rolling a 3}) \cdot P(\text{rolling a 3}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

Actually, you can see that the probability of rolling any ordered couple is always 1/36, since the probability of rolling any number on both dice is 1/6:

P(\text{rolling any ordered couple}) = P(\text{rolling the first number}) \cdot P(\text{rolling the second number}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

7 0
3 years ago
If i had 12$ but I spent 2 how much would I have left​
Ad libitum [116K]

The answer for this question would be 10

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What method can you use to find the product of 70×55
IceJOKER [234]
You can use the regrouping
6 0
3 years ago
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