Answer:
Fair Value method, and only a portion of Ima's 2004 dividends represent earnings after Pal's acquisition.
Explanation:
The part of the dividend that reduce the carrying value of the investment can be said to be a liquidating dividend. Liquidating dividend is said to have occurred when the payment made by the investee is higher than the income that was earned in the course of the period in which the shares of the investee was owned by the investor.
On the other hand, the cost method treats liquidating dividends as spend or reduction in the investment account and treats normal dividend as income. Hence it is impossible for the firm to use equity method.
This is because dividend are seen as a reduction in investment account under the equity method. This means that dividends received cannot be taken as income in this method, hence C and D are wrong.
Answer:
Answer is 12.64%. Therefore,
Treasury bills are paying a 4% rate of return. A risk-averse investor with a risk aversion of A = 3 should invest entirely in a risky portfolio with a standard deviation of 24% only if the risky portfolio's expected return is at least 12.64%.
Refer below for the explanation.
Explanation:
E - 4%= 0.5(3)(24%)2
E=12.64%
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Question is incomplete. I will try to answer to the best of my ability.
Answer and Explanation:
The credit terms '3/15, n/60' and '2/10, n/30' mentioned in the question signifies the terms in which riverbed has sold its product to the buyer.
3/15, n/60 means that if the buyer pays with 15 days since the transaction takes place then the buyer would receive 3% on the receivable.
However, if they fail to pay within 15 days then the buyer would have to pay the full amount within 60 days.
Similarly, 2/10, n/30 means 2% discount within 10 days since the transaction took place. Otherwise full payment after 10 day.
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