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DanielleElmas [232]
2 years ago
5

Explain why it is worthwhile to keep a theater open during the afternoon, at a time when there are fewer customers than in the e

vening
Business
1 answer:
Naily [24]2 years ago
8 0

A thearter is kept open for an advertisement to allow people to view or have an idea of the movies to be shown in the evening.

<h3>What is a business strategy?</h3>

Business strategy is a list of actions and decisions made by a company or organization to reach its goals and objectives.

Opening theater in the afternoon is a business strategy and it is an approach to create awareness of what their programs will be.

Therefore, A theater is kept open for an advertisement to allow people to view or have an idea of the movies to be shown in the evening.

For more information on business strategy kindly check

brainly.com/question/24967768

You might be interested in
Managers who have the ability to understand, alter, lead, or control the behavior of others are said to possess ______ skills.
d1i1m1o1n [39]

Answer:

Managers who have the ability to understand, alter, lead, or control the behavior of others are said to possess human skills.

What is Human Skills?

having knowledge about and being able to work with people.

What is Skills?

the ability to use one's knowledge and competencies to accomplish a set of goals and objectives.

skills vs Skills.

skills refers to the general term, while Skills refer to the formal term "Skill Approach"

8 0
2 years ago
The following labor standards have been established for a particular product: Standard labor-hours per unit of output 9.9 hours
topjm [15]

Answer:

-$30,250 favorable

Explanation:

labor efficiency variance = (standard quantity - actual quantity) x standard labor cost

  • actual quantity = 7,700 hours
  • standard quantity = 9.9 hours x 1,000 units = 9,900
  • standard labor cost = $13.70

labor efficiency variance = (7,700 - 9,900) x $13.70 = -$30,250 favorable variance

the variance is favorable, because less hours were actually used than forecasted

5 0
2 years ago
A bond that pays interest semiannually has a coupon rate of 5.44 percent and a current yield of 4.91 percent. The par value is $
Aleksandr [31]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cupon rate= 0.0544/2= 0.0272

YTM= 0.0491/2= 0.02455

The par value is $1,000

<u>We weren't provided with the number of years of the bond. I imagine for 9 years.</u>

<u>To calculate the bond price, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Bond Price​= cupon*{[1 - (1+i)^-n] / i} + [face value/(1+i)^n]

Bond Price​= 27.2*{[1 - (1.02455^-18)] /0.02455} + [1,000*(1.02455^18)]

Bond Price​= 391.93 + 646.25

Bond Price​= $1,038.18

4 0
2 years ago
Slide Corporation reported net income for the current year of $370,000 and paid cash dividends of $50,000. Power Company holds 4
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

$20,000

Explanation:

Since Slide Company does not have any controlling interest which is ability to influence the decision making.

In Power Company, it should recognize the amount of below as dividend income in the current year,

50,000 * 40% = $20,000  

7 0
3 years ago
Included in Sage Company’s December 31, 2020, trial balance are the following accounts: Prepaid Rent $5,870, Debt Investments (t
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

Step 1:

Start by setting it up with the divisor 20 on the left side and the dividend 16 on the right side like this:

           

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

Step 2:

The divisor (20) goes into the first digit of the dividend (1), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

Step 3:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

       0    

Step 4:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (1 - 0 = 1) and write the answer below.

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1    

Step 5:

Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (6) like this:

       0    

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

Step 6:

The divisor (20) goes into the bottom number (16), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:

       0 0  

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

Step 7:

Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (20 x 0 = 0) and write that answer at the bottom:

       0 0  

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

        0  

Step 8:

Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (16 - 0 = 16) and write the answer at the bottom.

       0 0  

 2 0 ⟌ 1 6  

     - 0    

       1 6  

     -   0  

       1 6  

You are done, because there are no more digits to move down from the dividend.

The answer is the top number and the remainder is the bottom number.

Therefore, the answer to 16 divided by 20 calculated using Long Division is:

0

16 Remainder

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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