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Mekhanik [1.2K]
2 years ago
15

If the MPC is 0.75 and there are no crowding-out or accelerator effects, then an initial increase in aggregate demand of $100 bi

llion will eventually shift the aggregate demand curve to the right by a. $125 billion. b. $80 billion. c. $400 billion. d. $500 billion.
Business
1 answer:
umka21 [38]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

c. $400 billion

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what an initial increase in aggregate demand of $100 billion will eventually shift the aggregate demand curve to the right

First step is to calculate the GDP Multiplier

Using this formula

GDP Multiplier=1/(1-MPC)

Let plug in the formula

GDP Multiplier=1/1-0.75

GDP Multiplier=1/0.25

GDP Multiplier=4

Now let determine the shift in aggregate demand curve

Shift in aggregate demand curve=4*100 billion

Shift in aggregate demand curve= $400 billion

Therefore an initial increase in aggregate demand of $100 billion will eventually shift the aggregate demand curve to the right by $400 billion

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The property appraisal district for Marin County has just installed new software to track residential market values for property
Mama L [17]

Answer:

Equivalent annual cost = $16,502.89

Explanation:

Equivalent annual cost = Present Value of cost / Annuity factor

Present value of cost:

PV of additional cost  =50,000 ×1.05^(-10)=30,695.66

PV of maintenance cost

First four years= 5,000×  (1-1.05^(-4))/0.05=17,729.75

From year 5 to infinity = (8,000/0.05)× 1.05^(-4)=131,632.39

PV of maintenance cost =  17,729.75  + 131,632.396= 149,362.14

PV of costs = 150,000 + 30,695.66 + 149,362.14= 330,057.8112

Annuity factor = 1/r = 1/0.05= 20

Equivalent annual cost = 330,057.8112 /20=$16,502.89

Equivalent annual cost = $16,502.89

4 0
3 years ago
Question 4
SashulF [63]

1. The calculated capital budgeting techniques yielded the following results:

A. Accounting Rate of Return (AROR) is <u>28%</u>.

B. Payback Period Technique (PBP) is <u>5 years</u>.

C. Net Present Value Technique (NPV) is <u>RM33,588</u>.

D. Profitability Index (PI) is <u>1.056</u>.

2. The project should be accepted based on the positive results above.

3. The importance of capital budgeting techniques lies in the fact that they aid capital decision-making by measuring their probable outcomes.

<h3>What are capital budgeting techniques?</h3>

Capital budgeting techniques are capital investment evaluation tools.

Some of the capital budget tools include the Payback Period, Discounted Payment Period, Net Present Value, Profitability Index, Internal Rate of Return, and Modified Internal Rate of Return.

These capital budgeting techniques help management to evaluate capital projects and to choose investment strategies.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Investment cost = RM600,000

Cost of capital = 12%

            Net Cash Flows      PV Factor     Present Value

Year 0     RM600,000               1              (RM600,000)

Year 1       RM100,000           0.893                  89,300

Year 2            110,000            0.797                  87,670

Year 3            121,000            0.712                   86,152

Year 4            133,100            0.636                 84,652

Year 5            146,410            0.567                  83,014

Year 6    RM400,000            0.507              202,800

Present value of cash flows =                 RM633,588

Net Present Value                                      RM33,588

Total Net Cash Flows = RM1,010,510

Average Net Cash flows = RM168,418 (RM1,010,510/6)

Accounting Rate of Return = Average Income/Initial Cost

= 28% (RM168,418/RM600,000 x 100)

Payback period = 5 years

NPV = Initial Investment - PV of net cash flows

= RM33,588

Profitability Index = Present value of cash flows/Initial Cost

= 1.056 (RM633,588/RM600,000)

Learn more about capital budgeting techniques at brainly.com/question/17159659

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
The percentage of network programming on broadcast TV that involves sports is _______________________.
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer: Fifty percent.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Kouba Corporation is working on its direct labor budget for the next two months. Each unit of output requires 0.52 direct labor-
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

Kouba Corporation

Direct labor budget for April and May:

                                                         April           May

Production in units                         1,700          1,600

Direct labor-hours per unit             0.52           0.52

Total direct labor-hours needed     884             832

Total direct labor-hours paid          960             960

Direct labor rate                           $9.00          $9.00

Total direct labor cost                $8,640        $8,640

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                                          April           May

Production in units                         1,700          1,600

Direct labor-hours per unit             0.52           0.52

Total direct labor-hours needed     884             832

Total direct labor-hours paid          960             960

Direct labor rate                           $9.00          $9.00

Total direct labor cost                $8,640        $8,640

Idle hours paid for                              76              128

Cost for idle hours                        $684          $1,152

b) The Kouba Corporation pays its workers for a total of 204 idle hours with a total cost of $1,836 for the two months period.  This amount is substantial, about 10% of the total amount paid for the two months.

6 0
3 years ago
Companies A and B each have the same level of total assets, the same tax rate, and the same earnings before interest and taxes (
anygoal [31]

Answer:

a.Company A has a lower return on assets (ROA).

c.Company A has a lower times interest earned (TIE) ratio.

That is options a and c

Explanation:

For company A to have high debt ratio means it has a higher debt which will reduce earnings. Company A's earnings will be less than Company B's.

ROA= Net income/Total assets

Since Company A's income is less than Company B's ROA for Company A will be less than that for Company B.

TIE = Earnings before Interest and Tax/Interest

Due to higher debt of company A it's interest will be higher resulting in low TIE.

5 0
3 years ago
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