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Agata [3.3K]
3 years ago
5

You have been asked to analyze the bids for 200 polished disks used in solar panels. These bids have been submitted by three sup

pliers: Thailand Polishing, India Shine, and Sacramento Glow. Thailand Polishing has submitted a bid of 3,000 baht. India Shine has submitted a bid of 3,000 rupee. Sacramento Glow has submitted a bid of $3,000. You check with your local bank and find that $1=10 baht , and $1=8 rupee. The final destination for the disks is New Delhi, India and there is a 35% import tax. Thailand Polishing and Sacramento Glow are based outside of India and India Shine is based in India.A .What is the price per unit in dollars, including import tax for Thailand polishing?B. What is the price per unit for India Shine?C. What is the price per unit for Sacramento Glow?
Business
1 answer:
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

(a) Thailand polishing price per unit is $2.03

(b) India shine price per unit is $1.88

(c) Sacramento glow price per unit is $15

Explanation:

(a) Thailand polishing:

Thailand polishing has submitted a quote of 3000 baht

$1 = 10 bhat

1 bhat = $ 0.1

Thailand polishing submitted bid = 3000 × $0.1 =$300

Import tax = 35%

Total cost = 1.35 × 300 = $405

Cost per unit = 405 ÷ 200 = $2.03

(b) India shine:

India shine has submitted a bid of 3000 rupees

$1 = 8 rupees

1 Rupee = $0.125

India shine submitted bid = 3000 × 0.125 = $375

Price per unit = 375 ÷ 200 = $1.88

(c) Sacramento Glow submitted bid = $3,000

price per unit = $3,000 ÷ 200

= $15

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Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

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  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

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  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

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In 1978, China announced a new policy to open the door to foreign businesses and investments that wanted to set up in China.

<h3>What did china do in 1978?</h3>

In 1978, Deng announced a new policy that opened the door to foreign businesses that wanted to set up in China.

For the first time, the country was open to foreign investment and encouraged investment by private companies from other countries.

Therefore, A is the correct option.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

According to classical economists, the price-wage-interest rate flexibility refers to a combination of flexible factors that maintains economic stability:

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Therefore, if spending declines, the economy will self-adjust using flexible interest rates (interest rates should lower), flexible wages (wages should lower) and flexible prices (prices should lower) until the economy rebounds.

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Based on the present value of the annual cash flows and the investment cost, the present value index is 1.39

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To find the present value index, use the formula:

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The present value of cash flow is:

= Annual cash flows x Present value interest factor of annuity, 9%, 4 years

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= $8,034.51

The present value index is:

= 8,034.51 / 5,800

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