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Sveta_85 [38]
2 years ago
10

A capital investment project has the following expected incremental values next year: Revenue $1,000,000 Operating costs 200,000

Depreciation 300,000 If the income tax rate is 25%, the incremental after-tax operating cash flow is:
Business
1 answer:
sattari [20]2 years ago
5 0

Based on the calculation below, incremental after-tax operating cash flow is $675,000

<h3>How to calculate incremental after-tax operating cash flow</h3>

This can be calculated as follows:

Profit before interest and tax = Revenue - Operating costs – Depreciation = $1,000,000 - $200,000 - $300,000 = $500,000

Operating income = Profit before tax – (Profit before tax * Tax rate) = $500,000 – ($500,000 * 25%) = $375,000

Therefore, we have:

Incremental after-tax operating cash flow = Operating income + Depreciation = $375,000 + $300,000 = $675,000

Learn more about cash flows here: brainly.com/question/18301011.

#SPJ1

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Partial adjusted trial balance for Pina Colada Corp. at December 31, 2017, includes the following accounts: Retained Earnings $1
lara [203]

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Pina Colada Corp.

Retained earnings statement for the year

Retained earnings January 1 [$16,700 + $4,700 - $10,400] $11,000

Add: Net income $10,400

Less: Dividends $4,700

Retained earnings, December 31 $16,700

Therefore, ending retained earnings is $16,700

4 0
3 years ago
Looking to invest in his first pair of leather dress shoes, Sean is deciding between some Alden slip-ons and some Allen Edmonds
Gelneren [198K]

Answer: Option (A) and (B) are correct.

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the benefit that is foregone for an individual by choosing one alternative over other alternatives available to him.

If the opportunity cost is lower for an individual then this will benefit him whereas if the opportunity cost is higher then this will not benefit the individuals.

In our case, the opportunity cost of purchasing Aldens is the savings that is foregone and classic, snazzy look that comes with wearing wingtips.

3 0
3 years ago
discuss how the central bank uses the open market operations as a sutible measure of credit control. Explain with respect to bot
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer: By affecting the money in circulation

Explanation:

The central bank uses the open market operations as a sutible measure of credit control by affecting the quantity of money in circulation. It's the central bank that prints money that's being used, to avoid economical unbalance, the central bank has to regulate how the money is circulated in the country. They do this by either selling or buying government securities through open market operations. During this process the purchase government securities from commercial banks and institutions making bank assets free and more cash for loans.

8 0
3 years ago
Recently the corporate tax law in the U.S. changed so that firms that previously faced a marginal tax rate of close to 40% now p
garri49 [273]

Answer:

a.) increased the after-tax cost of debt

Explanation:

Missing options are:

a.) increased the after-tax cost of debt

b.) did not change the after-tax cost of debt

c.) increased the value of the deduction for interest expense

d.) decreased the after-tax cost of debt

The after tax cost of debt is calculated by multiplying the debt's principal x interest rate x (1 - tax rate). If the tax rate decreases, the after tax cost of debt increases. e.g.

$1,000 owed at 6%, when tax rate was 40% ⇒ after tax cost of debt = $1,000 x 6% x (1 - 40%) = $36 or 3.6%

now, $1,000 owed at 6%, when tax rate is 21% ⇒ after tax cost of debt = $1,000 x 6% x (1 - 21%) = $47.40 or 4.74%

4 0
3 years ago
SAT scores generally fall _____ points above or below a student's true ability.
qwelly [4]
The correct answer for this question is this one: "D.30 to 40." SAT scores generally fall 30 to 40 points above or below a student's true ability. SAT <span>is a standardized test widely used for college admissions in the United States. </span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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