Answer:
e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist
A perfect hedge is nearly impossible
Explanation:
A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.
At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.
Answer:
If volume reaches 500 units, net income will be: $715
Explanation:
When volume of sales was at 400 units:
Selling price per unit = Sales Revenue/400 = $1,600/400 = $4
Variable Cost per unit = Variable Cost/400 = $700/400 = $1.75
If volume reaches 500 units:
Total Sales Revenue = $4 x 500 = $2,000
Variable Cost = $1.75 x 500 = $875
Fixed Cost will not change = $410
Net income = Total Sales Revenue - Variable Cost - Fixed Cost = $2,000 - $875 - $410 = $715
<span>On Monday, during which time I am presenting to a group of highly accomplished scientists, my presentation will be far more technical and detailed. On Tuesday, when I am presenting to the company's marketing and promotions department, all of these technical details will be scrapped and I will be presenting very broad ideas. If I am presenting on a new method of administering blood tests, I will talk on Monday about the methods that I am using, however; on Tuesday, I will talk about the benefit to the patients and to the hospital.</span>
Answer:
C. Estimate credit losses.
Explanation:
the client prepared aged triad balance of account receivable is generally included in audit documents so that the evaluation of estimated credit losses can be done.
Therefore, This aging is best used by the auditors to Estimate credit losses.
