Answer:
In the picture.
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope that helps.
Hey guys! Sorry to bother but I need help with these. 5th grade math, will give brainliest! (If you see multiple questions by me
that look the same, they are all different.)
2 answers:
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Since we know that g(x) is between h(x) and f(x) we can use the same formula format.
If g(x) = a * b^x
a = 160 most likely
b^x would be between 4/5 and 1/5
Look at desmos example below where the third is 3/5^x and lies directly between the first 2
If g(x) = a * b^x
a = 160 most likely
b^x would be between 4/5 and 1/5
Look at desmos example below where the third is 3/5^x and lies directly between the first 2
Answer:
The probability that there are more heads than tails is equal to .
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the number of flips is an odd number, there can't be an equal number of heads and tails. In other words, there are either
- more tails than heads, or,
- more heads than tails.
Let the event that there are more heads than tails be .
(i.e., not A) denotes that there are more tails than heads. Either one of these two cases must happen. As a result,
.
Additionally, since this coin is fair, the probability of getting a head is equal to the probability of getting a tail on each toss. That implies that (for example)
- the probability of getting 7 heads out of 15 tosses will be the same as
- the probability of getting 7 tails out of 15 tosses.
Due to this symmetry,
- the probability of getting more heads than tails (A is true) is equal to
- the probability of getting more tails than heads (A is not true.)
In other words .
Combining the two equations:
,
.
In other words, the probability that there are more heads than tails is equal to .
This conclusion can be verified using the cumulative probability function for binomial distributions with as the probability of success.
.