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Nikitich [7]
2 years ago
11

#82 will give brainliest to best answer!​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Fofino [41]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

\frac{6}{k-6}

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we can factor all of the following equations to turn that weird, huge looking thing into \frac{(k+6)(k-6)}{(k-6)(k-10)} ÷ \frac{(k-6)^2}{k(k-6)} × \frac{6(k-10)}{k(k + 6)}. We know that division is simply multiplication by the reciprocal, so that whole equation will turn into \frac{(k+6)(k-6)}{(k-6)(k-10)} × \frac{k(k-6)}{(k-6)^2} × \frac{6(k-10)}{k(k+6)}. Now we can cancel out some values if they are both in the numerator and denominator, which will turn that still huge looking thing into \frac{6}{k-6} which is our final answer, as it cannot be simplified further.

Hope this helped! :)

kirill [66]2 years ago
3 0
(K^2-36/k^2-16k+60)/(k^2-12k+36/k^2-6k)*(6k-60/k^2+6k)

=[(k^2-6^2)/(k-6)(k-10)]*[k(k-6)/(k-6)^2][6(k-10)/k(k+6)

=(k^2-6^2)(k/(k-6)^2)(6/k (k-6)
=6(k^2-6^2)/(k-6)^2(k+6)
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NeX [460]

Answer:

c = 50

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the Pythagorean Theorem:

Plug in the values of a = 14, and b = 48

a^{2} +b^{2} =c^{2}\\14^{2} +48^{2} =c^{2}  \\c^{2} = 2500\\c = \sqrt{2500} \\c = 50

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lara31 [8.8K]
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Pavel [41]

Answer:

The answer is A. t = 0.4n

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>See how on the graph, when n is 2, t is around 1? We just plug in 2 into n into the equation, t=0.4n. 0.4 times 2 is 0.8, so t=0.8. 0.8 is around 1, so a is right.</em><em> </em>If we tried the same thing with one of the other choices, like B. t=2.5n, then plugging in 2 into n would give us 2 times 2.5, which is 5. 5 is nowhere around 1, making it wrong.

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