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Ksju [112]
2 years ago
6

Why do economists pay attention to the balance of trade?

Business
1 answer:
Soloha48 [4]2 years ago
3 0

Economists use the BOT to analyze and measure the relative power of a country's economy. Hence, Economists pay special attention to the Balance of Trade.

<h3>Why is a balance of trade vital to the economy?</h3>

The Balance of trade plays a significant role in the calculation of the Gross Domestic Product of a country. As a part of GDP calculations, exports are brought and imports are subtracted from the total.

The more the change surplus, the more the GDP of a country.

Therefore, Economists use the BOT to analyze and measure the relative power of a country's economy. Hence, Economists pay special attention to the Balance of Trade.

Learn more about balance of trade here:

brainly.com/question/780414

#SPJ1

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5. Refer to the original data. By automating, the company could reduce variable expenses by $3 per unit. However, fixed expenses
gogolik [260]

Question Completion:

Due to erratic sales of its sole product - a high capacity battery for laptop computers - PEM, Inc., has been experiencing difficulties for some time.  The contribution format income statement for the most recent month is given as follows:

Sales (19,500 units at $30 per unit) $585,000

Variable expenses                              409,500

Contribution margin                             175,500

Fixed expenses                                    180,000

Net operating margin                           ($4,500)

Answer:

PEM, Inc.

a1) New CM ratio = 40%

a2) Break-even point in unit sales and dollars sales

i) Break-even point in unit sales = Fixed Expenses/Contribution per unit

= $237,000/$12

= 19,750 units

ii) Break-even point in dollars sales = Fixed Expenses/Contribution margin ratio

= $237,000/0.4

= $592,500

b. Contribution format income statements, based on sales of 20,800 units:

                                                             Without                With

                                                         Automation         Automation

Sales (20,800 units at $30 per unit) $624,000    $624,000 (20,800 * $30)

Variable expenses (20,800 at $21)     436,800       374,400 (20,800 * $18)

Contribution margin (20,800 * $9)      187,200       249,600 (20,800 * $12)

Fixed expenses                                    180,000       237,000

Net operating margin                            $7,200       $12,600

c) I would recommend that the company should automate its operations.  It will generate more net operating margin, equal to $5,400 ($12,600 - $7,200), when it automates than when it does not, assuming that it expects to sell 20,800 units.  

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Variable expenses reduction = $3 per unit

Old variable expenses per unit = $21 ($409,500/19,500)

New variable expenses per unit = $18 ($21 - $3)

New variable expenses = $351,000 ($18 * 19,500)

New Contribution Margin per unit = $12 ($30 - $18)

New Contribution margin ratio = $12/$30 * 100 = 0.4 or 40%

Old Fixed Expenses = $180,000

New Fixed Expenses = $237,000 ($180,000 + $57,000)

4 0
3 years ago
1 point
Amanda [17]

Answer:

1935

Explanation:

32,000-15,000 = 17,000

17,000 x 0.075 = $1275 (this is his commission)

1275 + 660 = $1935

$1935 is his gross income for the month

5 0
3 years ago
Ecstasy Pharmaceuticals faces fixed costs of $1 million with manufacturing its new drug. The company sells the drug in bottles o
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

The cost of producing one bottle is $10 .

Explanation:

The fixed costs of making the drug = $1 million

The selling price of the 50 pills bottles = $10

Total number of bottles sold at breakeven =200000

Total revenue from the sale of bottle = $10 × 200000

Total revenue from the sale of bottle = $2000000

Since at breakeven point the total revenue is equal to total cost. So, total cost of producing the 200000 bottles is $2000000.

Thus, the cost of producing one bottle = $2000000 / 200000 = $10

5 0
3 years ago
Under U.S. GAAP, if the carrying value of a fixed asset was $50,000, the undiscounted expected future cash flows was $55,000, th
ira [324]

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.

Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000

Market Value = $53,000

Discounted Value = $51,000

There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.

7 0
3 years ago
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Andreas93 [3]

Answer:

Explanation:

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