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Rus_ich [418]
3 years ago
10

A pack of gum costs 75 cents. That is 3 cents less than three times what the pack cost 20 years ago. Which equation could be use

d to find the cost of the gum 20 years ago?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Aleks [24]3 years ago
6 0
The answer to your question is: .75 = 3x - .03

How to solve it:

x = the cost of a pack of gum twenty years ago

.75 =  3x - .03
+ .03      + .03

.78 = 3x
 / 3    / 3         

.26 = x

If a pack of gum now costs 75 cents, which is 3 cents less than three times what a pack would have cost 20 years ago, then a pack of gum would have cost 26 cents. 
Talja [164]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

C) 3x - 0.03 = 0.75

Step-by-step explanation:

i got it right

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Answer:

4 ft higher

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the ladder is 10 ft long and its top is 6 feet high(above the ground), we find the distance of its base from the wall since these three (the ladder, wall and ground) form a right angled triangle. Let d be the distance from the wall to the ladder.

So, by Pythagoras' theorem,

10² = 6² + d²  (the length of the ladder is the hypotenuse side)

d² = 10² - 6²

d² = 100 - 36

d² = 64

d = √64

d = 8 ft

Since the ladder is moved so that the base of the ladder travels toward the wall twice the distance that the top of the ladder moves up.

Now, let x be the distance the top of the ladder is moved, the new height of top of the ladder is 6 + x. Since the base moves twice the distance the top of the ladder moves up, the new distance for our base is 8 - 2x(It reduces since it gets closer to the wall).

Now, applying Pythagoras' theorem to the ladder with these new lengths, we have

10² = (6 + x)² + (8 - 2x)²

Expanding the brackets, we have

100 = 36 + 12x + x² + 64 - 32x + 4x²

collecting like terms, we have

100 = 4x² + x² + 12x - 32x + 64 + 36

100 = 5x² - 20x + 100

Subtracting 100 from both sides, we have

100 - 100 = 5x² - 20x + 100 - 100

5x² - 20x = 0

Factorizing, we have

5x(x - 4) = 0

5x = 0 or x - 4 = 0

x = 0 or x = 4

The top of the ladder is thus 4 ft higher

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3 years ago
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\lim_{\theta \to 0} \frac{\sin\theta}{\theta}=\lim_{\theta \to 0} \frac{ \frac{d}{d\theta} (\sin\theta)}{\frac{d}{d\theta}\theta} \\  \\ =\lim_{\theta \to 0} \frac{\cos\theta}{1}=\cos0=1
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