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erik [133]
2 years ago
6

The assets (in billions of dollars) for a financial firm can be approximated by the function A(x)=318e^0.27x, where x=7 correspo

nds to the year 2007. Find the assets in each following years. A)2012 B) 2014 C) 2017
Mathematics
1 answer:
Mashutka [201]2 years ago
6 0

The value of the asset in 2012, 2014, and 2017 are 8119.72, 13933.55 and, 31321.23, respectively. A function assigns the values.

<h3>What is a Function?</h3>

A function assigns the value of each element of one set to the other specific element of another set.

Given the assets (in billions of dollars) for a financial firm can be approximated by the function A(x)=318e^{0.27x}, where x=7 corresponds to the year 2007. Therefore, the assets value in the following years will be,

A.) 2012 - A(12)=318e^{0.27\times 12} = 8,119.72

B.) 2014 - A(14)=318e^{0.27\times 14} = 13,933.5

C.) 2012 - A(17)=318e^{0.27\times 17} = 31,321.23

Hence, the value of the asset in 2012, 2014, and 2017 are 8119.72, 13933.55 and, 31321.23, respectively.

Learn more about Function:

brainly.com/question/5245372

#SPJ1

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Greyhounds can reach speeds of 20.1 meters per second. Which conversion factor can be used to find this speed in meters per minu
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

20.1metres / seconds

We want to convert to metres /minutes

It is known that 60seconds=1minutes

So therefore, either we multiply 20.1metres/seconds by

60seconds/1minutes

Or

1minutes/60seconds

Multiplying with the above does not change the magnitude of the quantity because it is like we are multiplying by 1.

Since we want to cancel seconds and it is in the denominator, so to do this we need to multiply with the fraction that has the seconds as numerator.

So, we are going to multiply with 60seconds/1minutes

20.1metres/seconds ×60seconds/minutes

1206metres/minutes.

So the correct fraction is the StartFraction 60 seconds Over 1 minute, which is the third option

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
So this has to do with permutations and honestly I need an explanation on how I can figure these out.
AnnZ [28]
Well, the answer quite simple ....there are 4! ways to arrange these numbers...and as 4! = 4*3*2*1 = 24

hence 24 is the correct answer....


u can also remember it by theorem of multiplication as.....in first place (I.e. first code can be any no. out of 4,5,2&7 ....so 4*.....

as first place is acquired by a certain no. that leaves three no. to fill third place and when third place I'd occupied it leaves 2 numbers to fill second place and lastly only one no. to fill the last place .....so it's result will be like 4*3*2*1.



I know this is pretty much confusing ....but still I tried my best....

if anything troubles u here feel free to ask me
6 0
3 years ago
He sum of three consecutive integers is −369−369. find the three integers.
Alinara [238K]
N + (n+1) + (n+2) = -369
3n + 3 = -369
3n = -366
n = -122

so the three consecutive integers are : -124 ; -123 ; -122
4 0
3 years ago
HEY BESTIES help me please and thank you 6th grade math
erica [24]

Answer:

Thanks you to

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
No idea how to do this need help.
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

Hope that helps

Step-by-step explanation:

Brainliest would be much appreciated

3 0
2 years ago
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