Answer:
The value of the experimental probability is greater
Step-by-step explanation:
For the theoretical probability;
the probability that a card with the number 3 is selected is 1/5
We consider that the probabilities of each selection are equal, for the theoretical probability
For the experimental, we simply place the frequency of the selection 3 over the total
that will be 128/400 = 8/25
As we know that 8/25 is greater than 1/5
We can conclude that the value of the experimental probability is greater than that of the theoretical
It should be bigger, think of a pie:
if you cut it into 2 parts, the pieces are big
if you cut it into 4 parts, the pieces are smaller
in both parts, the AMOUNT OF PIE stays the same, the size changes
here, we cut out 8 / 10 pieces, (manny)
ana has the same WHOLE amount, but in BIGGER pieces because she has an amount less than 8.
It works if you REDUCE THE FRACTION, 8/10 can be REDUCED to 4/5, Ana's pieces should be twice as big as Manny's, but she only has 4
Answer:
The answer(s) would be WY/WZ, or WYZ (If this is multiple choice)
Step-by-step explanation:
The reasoning is that in the "IRL Equation" the polls showed that orange juice was prefered over milk, and didn't matter whether they wanted a bagel or muffin. All that matters in this equation is that it is one sided (For the 1st poll that is) and now you are able to narrow down the possibilities of the answer(s).
Answer:
a)
b) ![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5B0.0211%2B0.0995%2B0.211%5D%3D0.668)
c)
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
2) Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
Part a
Part b
![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5BP%28X%3D0%29%2BP%28X%3D1%29%2BP%28X%3D2%29%5D)
![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5B0.0211%2B0.0995%2B0.211%5D%3D0.668)
Part c
Pretty sure that the answer is B because if you plug in x+1 into 4x^2 you get 4(x+1)^2