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Alborosie
2 years ago
15

The area of the base, or bottom, of a canister can be found by dividing its volume by its height. What is the area of the base o

f a canister that has a volume of 43.96 cubic inches and a height of 3 inches?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Sindrei [870]2 years ago
3 0

volume=43.96cubic inches

height=3inches

area of the base=volume/height

area of the base=43.96/3

=14.653

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If g(x) = x2 + 2, find g(3). 9 8 11 6
cestrela7 [59]

Answer

Find out the value of g(3)  by using the function g(x) = x² + 2 given in the question .

To proof

The function given in the question is

g(x) = x² + 2

Take  x = 3

put x = 3  in the  g(x) = x² + 2

than it becomes

g(3) = 3² + 2

solving the above

we get

g(3) = 9 + 2

g(3) = 11

Thus g(3) = 11  and option (c) is correct .

Hence proved


7 0
3 years ago
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Work out the area of a circle
stellarik [79]

Answer:

50.24

Step-by-step explanation:

A= πr2

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5 0
2 years ago
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In a particular game, a fair die is tossed. If the number of spots showing is either four or five, you win $1. If the number of
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either you win at least $1, or you do not. Games are independent. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

Probability of winning at least $1 on a single game:

The die has 6 sides.

If it lands on 4, 5 or 6(either of the three sides), you win at least $1. So

p = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5

You are going to play the game twice.

This means that n = 2

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is

This is P(X = 2).

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 2) = C_{2,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{2} = 0.25

The probability that you win at least $1 both times is 0.25 = 25%.

4 0
2 years ago
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krek1111 [17]

Answer:

4, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, <u><em>24.</em></u>

Step-by-step explanation:

The 8th term is 24.

just +2 (add 2) every time.

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