Which of the following event occur with a probability zero

George had a previous balance on his credit card of $330.19 on which he paid $50.00. He was assessed a finance charge of $4.20.

STALIN [3.7K]

The answer is $284.39.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the single most important factor in determining the success or failure

kumpel [21]

The answer is Communication

4 0

3 years ago

Which of the following is used to explain the process managers go through in determining the reasons for effective or ineffectiv

inessss [21]

Answer: Attribution theory.

Explanation:

Managers most times makes use of the Attribution theory when trying interpret employees behavior. The Attribution theory is a theory that studies individual and their behavior, what makes an individual either motivated or demoralized on a job.

8 0

2 years ago

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Bramble Corp. has $3960000 of 9% convertible bonds outstanding. Each $1,000 bond is convertible into 30 shares of $30 par value

natta225 [31]

Answer: Credit of $217480 to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par

Explanation:

The following information is given in the question as:

Debit: Bonds payable = $1,250,000

Debit: Premium on bonds payable = $92480

Credit: Common stock = $1,125,000

Credit: Paid in capital in excess of Par = $217480

The above were calculated as:

Common stock = ($1250,000/$1,000) × 30 × 30

= $1250 × 90

= $1,125,000

% Conversion will be:

= $1,250,000 / $3960000 = 0.32

Unamortized bond premium will then be:

= 0.32 × $289,000

= $92,480

Paid in capital in excess of par will be:

= $1,250,000 + $92,480- $1,125,000

= $217,480

Therefore, the answer will be to

"Credit of $217480 to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par"

4 0

2 years ago

The current (year 0) price of the shares of Company XYZ is $50. There are 1 million shares outstanding. Next year (year 1)’s div

otez555 [7]

Answer:

1. The dividend per share in year 2 would be $2.16.

The dividend per share in year 3 would be $2.3328

2. The market value of the firm is $50 million

3. The value of the firm next year after the payout is $ 54

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the dividend per share in year 2 and the dividend per share in year 3 we would have to make the following calculation:

dividend per share in year 2=dividend per share in year 1*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 1=$2

Growth Rate=Retention Ratio * ROE

Growth Rate=40% * 20%

Growth Rate=8%

Therefore, dividend per share in year 2=$2*(1+8%)

dividend per share in year 2=$2.16

dividend per share in year 3=dividend per share in year 2*(1+Growth Rate)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.16(1´8%)

dividend per share in year 3=$2.3328

2. In order to calculate the current market value of the firm we would have to make the following calculation:

market value of the firm=Currect Share Price * Number of outstanding shares

According to the given data:

Currect Share Price=$50

Number of outstanding shares=1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50*1 million shares

market value of the firm=$50 million

3. In order to calculate the value of the firm next year after the payout we would have to calculate first the rate of return as follows:

value of the firm =dividend per share in year 1/rate of return-growth rate

$50* Rate of Return - 4 = $2

Rate of Return = 6 / 50

Rate of Return =12%

Therefore, value of the firm next year after the payout=dividend per share in year 2/rate of return-growth rate

value of the firm next year after the payout=$2.16/0.12-0.08

value of the firm next year after the payout=$ 54

3 0

2 years ago