The cheap foreign labor argument for protectionism refers to a lower wage often earned by many foreign workers.
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Answer:
The second option which 5 years to maturity exhibited a lower price of
$523.95
Explanation:
In order to ascertain the option with lower, it is important we determine the price of each investment based on the fact the price of an investment opportunity today is the present value of its future cash flow is the maturity value of $1000 in both cases:
a.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=4 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^4
PV=$596.25
b.
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
PV=price of investment
FV=future value=$1000
r= 13.80%.
n=5 years
PV=$1000/(1+13.80%)^5
PV= $523.95
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Answer
Price of bond = 17.96825
Explanation:
Bond price = ∑(C / 
)+ P /
where
n = no. of years
C = Coupon payments
YTM = interest rate or required yield
P = Par Value of the bond
put values in above equation
price = (5.66%/2) × 2000 × (0.31746) + ( 2000 ÷ 4.595×
)
= 17.96825
Answer:
the expected return from the investment is higher than that of those investments whose standard deviation is greater than zero.
Explanation:
As for the coefficient of variation which clearly defines the difference in values from the mean value in the data set.
It clearly defines as standard deviation/mean.
Where standard deviation is 0 the coefficient will also be 0 which shall represent the risk associated with it.
The least the coefficient of variation the least the risk with maximum return.
Thus, the correct statement will be concluding that the expected return from this investment will be higher than the returns from the project in which standard deviation is more than 0.
