3.20 is the real risk-free rate
<h3>What is
risk-free rate?</h3>
The risk-free rate of return, commonly abbreviated as the risk-free rate, is the rate of return on a hypothetical investment with scheduled payments over a set period of time that is assumed to meet all payment obligations.
Subtract the inflation rate from the yield on the Treasury bond that corresponds to the duration of your investment to calculate the real risk-free rate.
The risk-free rate determines the return an investor can expect from an investment over a specified time period. A risk-free rate is calculated by deducting the current inflation rate from the total yield of the treasury bond that corresponds to the investment duration.
To know more about risk-free rate follow the link:
brainly.com/question/19568670
#SPJ4
Answer:
the Merchandise Inventory will be credited by $3200
Explanation:
given data
Retail inventory = 800 units
recorded cost = $13
replacement cost = $ 9 per unit
selling price charged = $15
to find out
the Merchandise Inventory will be
solution
we know here market is equal to current replacement cost that is $9
and here we can say
market is here less than cost
so inventory will be valued at Market
so we find
down in inventory is = 800 × ( 13 - 9 )
down in inventory is = 3200
so the Merchandise Inventory will be credited by $3200
Answer:
Value of x maximising profit : x = 5
Explanation:
Cost : C(x) = x^3 - 6x^2 + 13x + 15 ; Revenue: R(x) = 28x
Profit : Revenue - Cost = R(x) - C(x)
28x - [x^3 - 6x^2 + 13x + 15] = 28x - x^3 + 6x^2 - 13x - 15
= - x^3 + 6x^2 + 15x - 15
To find value of 'x' that maximises total profit , we differentiate total profit function with respect to x & find that x value.
dTP/dx = - 3x^2 + 12x + 15 = 0 ► 3x^2 - 12x - 15 = 0
3x^2 + 3x - 15x - 15 = 0 ► 3x (x +1) - 15 (x + 1) = 0 ► (x+1) (3x-15) = 0
x + 1 = 0 ∴ x = -1 [Rejected, production quantity cant be negative] ;
3x - 15 = 0 ∴ 3x = 15 ∴ x = 15/3 = 5
Double derivate : d^2TP/dx^2 = - 6x + 12
d^2TP/dx^2 i.e - 6x + 12 at x = 5 is -6(5) + 12 = - 30+ 12 = -8 which is negative. So profit function is maximum at x = 5
Answer:
The total shareholders’ equity at the end of Year 1 is $487,400
Explanation:
The computation of the ending total shareholders’ equity is shown below:
= Common stock value in exchange of cash + net income + net holding gains - dividend paid
= $442,400 + $98,000 + $1,000 - $54,000
= $487,400
While calculating the ending balance of shareholder equity we added the net income, net holding gains and deducted the dividend paid to the common stock value amount
<span>you are still likely to do the favor for ben because you have just been a victim of the: lowball technique
The lowball is a selling technique in which an item is offered at a lower price than actually intended AFTER we increase the basis price. This technique often works because people have the tendency to conform to additional favor is it convinced to do another favor before
</span>
