Answer:
- 1800
- 500
- Spending multiplier =5 , Tax multiplier =4
- new GDP =2000 , Increase GDP level = 11.11%
- new GDP =1800 , Increase in GDP level = 0%
Explanation:
- Equilibrium GDP = C+I+G+net export
C = private consumption
I = investment
G = government consumption
Net export = export - import
800+400+500+100 = 1800
- Saving at GDP = (GDP-T-C) +(T-G)
(1800-400-800)+(400-500) = 500
- SPENDING MULTIPLIER = 1 / 1 - MPC
= 1 / 1 - 0.8 = 5
TAX MULTIPLIER = MPC / 1 - MPC
= 0.8/1-0.8
=0.8 / 0.20 = 4
- New equilibrium GDP = GDP + 200 = 2000
Increase in GDP level = (NEW GDP - OLD GDP / OLD GDP) *100
(2000-1800) / 1800 = 11.11%
- New Equilibrium GDP = C + I+ G + Net export
(800-200) +400 +(500+200) +100 = 1800
Increase in GDP level = (NEW GDP - OLD GDP / OLD GDP) *100
There is no change in GDP.
Answer:
$42,480
Explanation:
Given that,
Value of bonds = $800,000
Interest rate = 10%
Selling price of bond (Book value) = $708,000
Priced to yield = 12%
The semi-annual yield is calculated as follows:
= 12% / 2 (because the interest is payable semiannually on June 30 and December 31)
= 6%
Therefore, the semi-annual bond interest expense:
= Selling price of bond × semi-annual yield
= $708,000 × 6%
= $42,480
Hence, the Blair should report bond interest expense for the six months ended June 30, 2021 in the amount of $42,480.
But the actual cash paid for the interest expense will be:
= (Value of bonds × Interest rate on bonds)
= [$800,000 × (10%/2)]
= $800,000 × 5%
= $40,000
So, the amortization for bond discount is the difference between actual cash paid and bond interest expense:
= $42,480 - $40,000
= $2,480
Answer:
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 48000 after tax cash flow
Explanation:
a. lets assume marginal tax rate is X%
After tax cash flow of 80000 should equal to 60000$
$80000 - [$80000*X%] = 60000$
80000*X% = 80000-60000
80000*X% =20000
X = 20000/80000
= 25%
b.
$80000 - [$80000*50%*x%] = 60000$
40000*x%=20000
x%=50%
c.
$80000- [$80000*x] = 60000 - [60000*50%*x]
80000-60000 = [80000*x] - [30000*x]
20000 = 50000x
x=40%
check
80000-40% =48000 after tax cash flow
60000*50%
=60000- [60000*50%*40%]
=48000 after tax cash flow
Answer: B. One asset would increase $1,750 and a different asset would decrease $1,750, causing no effect
Explanation:
From the information given in the question, the journal entry at the time of sales will be represented as:
Debit Accounts receivable $1,750
Credit Sales $1750
Now, when the credit receipt is received as illustrated in the question, the journal entry will be:
Debit Cash $1,750
Credit Accounts receivable $1,750
Therefore, one asset would increase $1,750 and a different asset would decrease $1,750, causing no effect.
The correct option is B.
Answer:
$1,950 more than expected
Explanation:
In this question ,we have to compare the revenues based on expected and the actual
So, the expected revenues would be
= Number of customers × per hour rate × expected time spent
= 30 customers × $26 × 8 hours
= $6,240
And, the actual revenues would be
= Number of increased customers × per hour rate × average time spent
= 42 customers × $26 × 7.5 hours
= $8,190
The revenue is increased by
= $8,190 - $6,240
= $1,950 more than expected
This is the answer but the same is not provided in the given options
