Can you guys help, me, please thank you in advanced.
2 answers:
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Answer:
B. 55.10
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:
1 pair of Shoes for 1st year = $50
2 pair of Sock for 1st year = $2 each = 22= $4
CPI for year 1 = Price of shoes for 1st year + Price of Sock for 1st year= $50 + $4 = $54
Now
1 pair of Shoes for 2nd year = $51
2 pair of Sock for 2nd year = $2.05 each = 2 2.05 =$4.10
CPI for Year 2 = Price of shoes for 2nd year + Price of Sock for 2nd year= $51 + $4.1 = $55.10
Hence CPI for Year 2 is $55.10
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
The equation of a line in point- slope form is
y - b = m(x - a)
where m is the slope and (a, b) a point on the line
Calculate the slope of the given line using the slope formula
m = (y₂ - y₁ ) / (x₂ - x₁ )
with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 2, - 4) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (2, 2) ← 2 points on the line
m = =
=
Parallel lines have equal slopes and using (a, b) = (- 3, 1), then
y - 1 = (x - (- 3)), that is
y - 1 = (x + 3) ← in point- slope form
You can see the three diagram attached. Each link is labeled with the probability: you have probability 1/6 that a six is rolled, and 5/6 that it is not rolled.
To answer the questions, find the path that brings you to the desired outcome, and multiply all the labels you meet.
First question:
To get three sixes, you have to choose the left path at each roll. The probability is always 1/6, so the answer is
Second question:
To get no sixes, you have to choose the right path at each roll. The probability is always 5/6, so the answer is
Third question:
To get exactly one six, it can either be the first, second or third roll.
In all cases, you have to choose the left path once and the right path twice: left-right-right mean that you get the six in the first roll, right-left-right means that you get the six in the second roll, right-right-left means that you get the six in the third roll.
In every case, the left turn has probability 1/6, and the right turn has probability 5/6. The probability of each combination is thus
And since there are three of these combinations, The answer is
Fourth question:
Since the question suggests to use what we already achieved, let's do it: having at least one six is the complementary event of having no sixes at all. If an event has probability p, its complementary has probability 1-p. So, since the probability of no sixes is known, the probability of at least one six is
