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2 years ago

Which measure is of an angle that is coterminal with a 425° angle?

Mathematics

2 answers:

olga55 [171]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

B. 425° – (840n)°, for any integer n

velikii [3]2 years ago

3 0

The measure of angle that is coterminal with 425° is 425° + (1440n)°

<h3>What are coterminal angles?</h3>

Coterminal angles are angles in multiples of the angles in standard positions examples(360°).

It is mostly gotten by adding 360° or multiples of 360 to the angle.

One of the unique behavior of coterminal angles is that their sine, cosine and tangent are equal.

Analysis:

From the options, the only one with an addition of 360 or multiples of 360 is 425 + 1440n

If we put n = 1, the coterminal angle gotten is 1865.

if we find the sine of 425°, we get 0.9063 which is same as the sine of 1865°.

In conclusion, the coterminal angle to 425° is 425° + (1440n)°.

Learn more about coterminal angle: brainly.com/question/23093580

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4 years ago

How to prove tan z is analytic using cauchy-riemann conditions

Basile [38]

A function $f(z)=f(x+iy)=u(x,y)+i v(x,y)$ is analytic if the C-R conditions are satisfied:

$\begin{cases}u_x=v_y\\u_y=-v_x\end{cases}$

We have

$f(z)=\tan z=\tan(x+iy)$

Recall the angle sum formula for tangent:

$\tan(x+iy)=\dfrac{\tan x+\tan iy}{1-\tan x\tan iy}$

Now recall that

$\tan iy=\dfrac{\sin iy}{\cos iy}=\dfrac{-\frac{e^y-e^{-y}}{2i}}{\frac{e^y+e^{-y}}2}=\dfrac{i\sinh y}{\cosh y}=i\tanh y$

So we have

$\dfrac{\tan x+\tan iy}{1-\tan x\tan iy}=\dfrac{\tan x+i\tanh y}{1-i\tan x\tanh y}$
$=\dfrac{(\tan x+i\tanh y)(1+i\tan x\tanh y)}{(1-i\tan x\tanh y)(1+i\tan x\tanh y)}$
$=\dfrac{\tan x+i\tanh y+i\tan^2x-\tan x\tanh^2y}{1+\tan^2x\tanh^2y}$
$=\dfrac{\tan x(1-\tanh^2y)}{1+\tan^2x\tanh^2y}+i\dfrac{\tanh y(1+\tan^2x)}{1+\tan^2x\tanh^2y}$
$=\underbrace{\dfrac{\tan x\sech^2y}{1+\tan^2x\tanh^2y}}_{u(x,y)}+i\underbrace{\dfrac{\tanh y\sec^2x}{1+\tan^2x\tanh^2y}}_{v(x,y)}$

We could stop here, but taking derivatives may be messy and would be easier to do if we can write this in terms of sines and cosines.

$u(x,y)=\dfrac{\tan x\sech^2y}{1+\tan^2x\tanh^2y}=\dfrac{\frac{\sin x}{\cos x\cosh^2x}}{1+\frac{\sin^2x\sinh^2y}{\cos^2x\cosh^2y}}=\dfrac{\sin x\cos x}{\cos^2x\cosh^2y+\sin^2x\sinh^2y}$
$u(x,y)=\dfrac{\sin2x}{2\cos^2x\cosh^2y+2(1-\cos^2x)(\cosh^2y-1)}=\dfrac{\sin2x}{2\cosh^2y-1+2\cos^2x-1}$
$u(x,y)=\dfrac{\sin2x}{\cos2x+\cosh2y}$

With similar usage of identities, we can find that

$v(x,y)=\dfrac{\sinh2y}{\cos2x+\cosh2y}$

Now we check the C-R conditions.

$u_x=\dfrac{2\cos2x(\cos2x+\cosh2y)-(-2\sin2x)\sin2x}{(\cos2x+\cosh2y)^2}=\dfrac{2+2\cos2x\cosh2y}{(\cos2x+\cosh2y)^2}$
$v_y=\dfrac{2\cosh2y(\cos2x+\cosh2y)-(2\sinh2y)\sinh2y}{(\cos2x+\cosh2y)^2}=\dfrac{2+2\cosh2y\cos2x}{(\cos2x+\cosh2y)^2}$
$\implies u_x=v_y$

Similarly, you can check that $u_y=-v_x$ , hence the C-R conditions are satisfied, and so $\tan z$ is analytic.

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3 years ago