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ser-zykov [4K]
1 year ago
15

Explain why the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aliun [14]1 year ago
8 0

The reason the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral is; The C's cancel each other out as desired.

<h3>How to represent Integrals?</h3>

Let us say we want to estimate the definite integral;

I = \int\limits^a_b {f'(x)} \, dx

Now, for any C, f(x) + C is an antiderivative of f′(x).

From fundamental theorem of Calculus, we can say that;

I = \int\limits^a_b {f'(x)} \, dx  = \phi(a) - \phi(b)

where Ф(x) is any antiderivative of f'(x). Thus, Ф(x) = f(x) + C would not work because the C's will cancel each other.

Read more about Integrals at; brainly.com/question/22008756

#SPJ1

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Write 0.414141414141 as a fraction?
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

The steps are :

let \: x \: be \: fraction,

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3 years ago
A bag contains 6 nickels and 14 pennies. What is the ratio, written in lowest terms, of nickels to the total number of coins in
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garik1379 [7]

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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