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ser-zykov [4K]
1 year ago
15

Explain why the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aliun [14]1 year ago
8 0

The reason the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral is; The C's cancel each other out as desired.

<h3>How to represent Integrals?</h3>

Let us say we want to estimate the definite integral;

I = \int\limits^a_b {f'(x)} \, dx

Now, for any C, f(x) + C is an antiderivative of f′(x).

From fundamental theorem of Calculus, we can say that;

I = \int\limits^a_b {f'(x)} \, dx  = \phi(a) - \phi(b)

where Ф(x) is any antiderivative of f'(x). Thus, Ф(x) = f(x) + C would not work because the C's will cancel each other.

Read more about Integrals at; brainly.com/question/22008756

#SPJ1

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31600 rounded to the nearest thousand is what
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3 years ago
136 is 85% of what number?
Arte-miy333 [17]
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3 0
3 years ago
Whats the value of e? -(4e+7)=1
LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

-(4e+7)=1

-4e-7=1

-4e=1+7

-4e=8 divided both side by -4

e=-2

4 0
3 years ago
A triangle has one side that measures 12 inches and another side that measures 33 inches. Which are possible side lengths of the
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

Greater than 21

Less than 45

Step-by-step explanation:

You add and subtract the two numbers you are given.

33 - 12 = 21

The third side has to be bigger than 21.

33 + 12 = 45

The third side has to be less than 45.

It can be written in one math sentence:

21 < x < 45

5 0
2 years ago
Compare.<br> 1 and a half hours<br><br> 100 minutes
xz_007 [3.2K]

Answer:

1 and a half hours < 100 mins

Step-by-step explanation:

1 and a half hours is equal to :

1 hour = 60 mins

half hour = 30 mins

60 + 30 = 90 mins

90 min is less than 100 mins

Therefore / ∴ :

1 and a half hours < 100 mins

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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