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Rashid [163]
2 years ago
5

The graph of f(x) is shown below.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Simora [160]2 years ago
4 0

The intersection would be at the point (2, 2).

This is because, graphically, the plots of f(x) and its inverse are reflections of one another across the line y = x, and (2, 2) lies on this line.

Put another way, we have f(2) = 2 = f⁻¹(2), so both f(x) and f⁻¹(x) intersect when x = 2.

Put yet another (longer) way, we can find the equation for f(x): it's a line that passes through (0, 6) and (3, 0), so it has slope -6/3 = -2. Then using the point-slope formula,

y - 6 = -2 (x - 0)   ⇒   y = f(x) = -2x + 6

By definition of function inverse, we have

f(f⁻¹(x)) = x

so that with the given definition of f(x), we get

f(f⁻¹(x)) = -2 f⁻¹(x) + 6 = x

-2 f⁻¹(x) = x - 6

f⁻¹(x) = -x/2 + 3

Then we solve for x such that f(x) = f⁻¹(x). We would find x = 2 as before.

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Answer: 1) 0.6561    2) 0.0037

Step-by-step explanation:

We use Binomial distribution here , where the probability of getting x success in n trials is given by :-

P(X=x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}

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As per given , we have

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Sample size : n= 4

Let x denotes the number of dish owners in the sample subscribes to at least one premium movie channel.

1) The probability that none of the dish owners in the sample subscribes to at least one premium movie channel = P(X=0)=^4C_0(0.10)^0(1-0.10)^{4}

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∴ The probability that none of the dish owners in the sample subscribes to at least one premium movie channel is 0.6561.

2) The probability that more than two dish owners in the sample subscribe to at least one premium movie channel.

= P(X>2)=1-P(X\leq2)\\\\=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)]\\\\= 1-[0.6561+^4C_1(0.10)^1(0.90)^{3}+^4C_2(0.10)^2(0.90)^{2}]\\\\=1-[0.6561+(4)(0.0729)+\dfrac{4!}{2!2!}(0.0081)]\\\\=1-[0.6561+0.2916+0.0486]\\\\=1-0.9963=0.0037

∴ The probability that more than two dish owners in the sample subscribe to at least one premium movie channel is 0.0037.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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