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tatiyna
3 years ago
13

Carla Vista Pharmaceuticals entered into a licensing agreement with Zenith Lab for a new drug under development. Carla Vista wil

l receive $8450000 if the new drug receives FDA approval. Based on prior approval, Carla Vista determines that it is 90% likely that the drug will gain approval. The transaction price of this arrangement should be $0 until approval is received. a.$7605000. b.$8450000. c.$845000.
Business
1 answer:
frez [133]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Depends on the valuation method, it can be either:

A) $7,605,000

B) $8,450,000

Explanation:

A) If Carla Vista uses the "expected value method", then the transaction price of this arrangement should = $8,450,000 x 90% = $7,605,000

B) If Carla Vista uses the "most likely method", then the transaction price of this arrangement should = $8,450,000

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Which of the following is NOT correct? Multiple Choice Renting is usually less costly in the short run. Home ownership usually h
ozzi

Answer:

Traditional financial guidelines suggest that your home should cost about five times your annual income

Explanation:

Renting an apartment would be less costly initially till the point present value of rental payments equals the purchase cost of the apartment, beyond which such an alternative turns costly.

Individuals need to decide whether to rent or buy in the light of financial factors, lifestyle preferences, etc. Financial factors relate to the availability of finance to fund buying and how steady the finance could be in next few years.

The property owner is eligible for tax deductions with respect to interest payable on home loan and property taxes paid during the period. Such deductions are not available to the tenant.

7 0
3 years ago
1. A company acquires all of the assets and liabilities of another company. Which statement is false? A. The acquired company no
Scilla [17]

Answer:

The answer is D.

Explanation:

When a company is acquiring a company, it is buying all the assets and liabilities of the acquired company.

The acquiring company will report the intangible asset(Goodwill). It is a purchased goodwill. Goodwill is the difference between purchase price and the net asset of the acquiring company.

Acquiring company will no longer exist because the acquired is buying all of the acquiring company's share.

All the assets and liabilities will be valued and reported at fair value to show the current market price.

It is not necessary for acquiring company to revalue all its assets and liabilities.

8 0
3 years ago
In order to encourage employee ownership of the company’s $1 par common shares, Washington Distribution permits any of its emplo
adell [148]

Answer:

Dr Cash                                                                 $3,268,000.00

Dr Compensation expense                                   $532,000.00  

Cr Common stock equity($1*95,000)                                              $95,000

Cr paid-in capital in excess of par($40-$1)*95,000                        $3,705,000

Explanation:

The cash received from employees as a result of the options is computed thus:

cash proceeds from options=$40*(1-14%)*95,000

                                                =$40*(1-0.14)*95,000

                                                 =$40*0.86*95,000

                                                 =$3,268,000.00

The 14% discount on share price is to be treated as compensation expense as shown thus:

discount (compensation expense)=14%*$40*95,000

                                                        =$532,000.00  

The appropriate entries would to debit cash with $3,268,000.00 as the increase in cash flows and debit of $532,000 to compensation expense.

The credit would be shown in common stock equity and paid-in capital in excess of par

                       

6 0
4 years ago
Is paper a natural resource or capital good?
alex41 [277]

Answer:

capital goods

Explanation:

becos it is raw material that is use to making papers

3 0
3 years ago
Uncollectible accounts; allowance method estimating bad debts as percentage of net sales vs. direct write-off method [LO7-5, 7-6
worty [1.4K]

Answer:

1. Bad debt expense = $97,500

2. Accounts receivable written off = $109,500

3. Bad debt expense for 2021 = $109,500

Explanation:

Bad debts expense refers to an uncollectible accounts expense that occurs because goods or services are delivered on credit a company to a customer who did not paid the amount owed.

The questions can be answered as follows:

1. What is bad debt expense for 2021 as a percent of net credit sales?

Under this, bad debt can be calculated using the following formula:

Bad expense = Net credit sales * Estimated bad debt percentage ....... (1)

Where;

Net credit sales = $6,500,000

Estimated bad debt percentage = 1.50%

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Bad debt expense = $6,500,000 * 1.50% = $97,500

2. Assume Ervin makes no other adjustment of bad debt expense during 2021. Determine the amount of accounts receivable written off during 2021.

This can be calculated using the following formula:

Accounts receivable written off = Beginning uncollectible balance + Bad debt expenses - Ending uncollectible balance ............ (2)

Where;

Beginning uncollectible balance = $62,000

Bad debt expenses = $97,500

Ending uncollectible balance = $50,000

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

Accounts receivable written off during 2021 = $62,000 + $97,500 - $50,000 = $109,500

3. If the company uses the direct write-off method, what would bad debt expense be for 2021?

Under the direct write-off method, the exact amount of uncollectible accounts as they are specifically identified are recorded.

Based on this explanation, bad debt expense for 2021 is equal to the accounts receivable written off during 2021 calculated in part 2 above. Therefore, we have:

Bad debt expense for 2021 = $109,500

7 0
3 years ago
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