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hoa [83]
1 year ago
9

Baldwin corp. ended the year carrying the most inventory. calculate baldwin corp.'s dollars of additional revenue (in dollars) i

f all existing inventory were sold at the current prices. solve using the information in the production analysis in your inquirer. select : 1 save answer $31,552,000 $19,923,000 $11,076,000 $42,279,680
Business
1 answer:
wariber [46]1 year ago
6 0

Based on the value of Baldwin Corp's existing inventory, the dollars of additional revenue that would have been earned is $19,923,000.

<h3>What amount of dollars of additional revenue would Baldwin have earned?</h3>

The dollars of additional revenue that a company would have earned is the value of the existing inventory because inventory is assumed to be sold at cost.

Baldwin's existing inventory was valued at $19,923,000 so the dollars of additional revenue would be the same amount of $19,923,000.

Full question is:

Baldwin corp. ended the year carrying the most inventory of $19,923,000. calculate Baldwin corp.'s dollars of additional revenue (in dollars) if all existing inventory were sold at the current prices.

Find out more on the effects of existing inventory at brainly.com/question/24868116.

#SPJ1

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2 years ago
David Company has plans to produce 100,000 units of Product A and 200,000 units of Product B. The planned results of a month's o
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

Break-even point= 114943 units

Product A:  77012 units

Product B:  37931 units

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

David Company has plans to produce:

Product A: 100,000 units.

Product B: 200,000 units.

Sales revenue:

Product A= 100,000*1.20= $120,000

Product B= 200,000*0.40= $80,000

Total= $200,000

Varable expense=

Product A= 0.60*100,000= $60,000

Prodcut B= 0.30*200,000= $60,000

Total= $120,000

Contribution Margin= $80,000

Fixed costs= $50,000

Net Income= $30,000

The formula of the break-even point with multiple products is:

Break-even point= Total fixed costs/ (weighted average selling price/ weighted average variable expenses)

First, we have to calculate the sales percentage of individual products in the total sales mix.

Total sales= 300,000 units

A: 200,000/300,000= 0.67

B:100,000/300,000=0.33

Weighted average selling price= (Sale price of product A × Sales percentage of product A) + (Sale price of product B × Sale percentage of product B)= (1.20*0.67)+(0.40*0.33)= $0.936

Weighted average variable expenses= (Variable costs of product A × Sales percentage of product A) + (Variable costs of product B × Variable expenses of product B)= (0.60*0.67) + (0.30*0.33) = $0.501

Now, we can calculate the break-even point:

Break-even point= 50,000/(0.936-0.501)= 114943 units

Product A: 0.67*114943= 77012 units

Product B: 0.33*114943= 37931 units

6 0
3 years ago
Using MACRS rates for a three-, five-, seven-, and ten-year property, what is the percentage for the depreciable rate?
Alexxandr [17]
Hi there
The answer is a
See the attachment for more details

5 0
2 years ago
The company's wacc is 10.5%. what is the irr of the better project? (hint: the better project may or may not be the one with the
Inessa05 [86]

The better the IRR, the better. but, a corporation may additionally decide on a mission with a decreased IRR as it has other intangible advantages, together with contributing to a larger strategic plan or impeding competition.

Solution:

NPV of Project S= -$1,000 +$895.03/(1+10.5%) + $250//(1+10.5%)^2 +$10//(1+10.5%)^3 +$5//(1+10.5%)^4 =25.49320776

IRR of Project S= -$1,000 +$895.03/(1+r%) + $250//(1+r%)^2 +$10//(1+r%)^3 +$5//(1+r%)^4 =0

IRR =12.80%

NPV of Project L = -$1,000+ $5/(1+10.5%) +$260/(1+10.5%)^2 + $420/(1+10.5%)^3 + $802.50/(1+10.5%)^4

=$67.01

IRR of Project L=

-$1,000+ $5/(1+r%) +$260/(1+r%)^2 + $420/(1+r%)^3 + $802.50/(1+r%)^4 =0

IRR =12.700%

Project L is better than Project S since L has higher NPV

IRR of Project L is 12.7%.

Learn more about IRR here:-brainly.com/question/28428807

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
At the beginning of the year, a company predicts total overhead costs of $690,900. The company applies overhead using machine ho
nignag [31]

Answer:

$9,400

Explanation:

We know,

predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = \frac{total overhead cost}{total machine hour}

Given,

Total overhead cost = $690,900

Total machine hours = 1,470

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = \frac{690,900}{1,470}

predetermined overhead rate for machine hour = $470

When we use a separate job, the overhead cost will be = predetermined overhead rate × total hours used by the job.

The amount of overhead should be applied to Job 65A if that job uses 20 machine hours during January  = 20 hours × $470 = $9,400

6 0
2 years ago
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