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Thepotemich [5.8K]
1 year ago
11

Lapping is best described as the process of Group of answer choices inflating bank balances by transferring money among differen

t bank accounts. applying cash receipts to a different customer's account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of cash receipts. increasing expenses to conceal that an asset was stolen. stealing small amounts of cash, many times over a period of time.
Business
1 answer:
Artemon [7]1 year ago
3 0

Lapping is best described as the process of <u>B. applying </u><u>cash receipts</u> to a different customer's account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of cash receipts.

<h3>What is Lapping?</h3>

Lapping is an employee stealing scheme revolving around the application of cash receipts.

Lapping can be traced by tracing the application of cash receipts to customers' accounts.

Routine application of cash receipts to wrong customer accounts proves evidence of a lapping scheme.

Thus, Lapping is best described as the process of <u>B. applying </u><u>cash receipts</u> to a different customer's account in an attempt to conceal previous thefts of cash receipts.

Learn more about lapping schemes at brainly.com/question/14846195

#SPJ12

You might be interested in
Accents Associates sells only one product, with a current selling price of $70 per unit. Variable costs are 40% of this selling
katrin2010 [14]

Answer:

$20,000

Explanation:

Break-even sales is the point of sales at which the business incur no profit no loss. At this level of sale the business covers all of the variable and fixed cost associated with the product. Break-even is expressed in sales volume and sales value terms.

Current Selling Price = $70

As we know

Sales price = Variable cost + Contribution margin

Sales price = Variable cost ratio + Contribution margin ratio

100% = 40% + Contribution

Contribution = 100% - 40% = 60%

Fixed Cost = $12,000 Per month

Break-even sales  = Fixed Cost / Contribution margin ratio

Break-even sales  = $12,000 / 60% = $20,000

4 0
3 years ago
1. Albacore Corporation purchased a new machine costing $27,600 on January 1, 2017. The machine is expected to have a $1,800 sal
docker41 [41]

Answer:

Annual depreciation= $4,300

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Purchasing price= $27,600

Salvage value= $1,800

Useful life= 6 years

To calculate the depreciation expense using the straight-line method, we need the following formula:

Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)

Annual depreciation= (27,600 - 1,800) / 6= $4,300

7 0
3 years ago
Please help me ...<br> thank you ..
spayn [35]

1 c AROUND THE INDUSTRY AVERAGE FOR OUR FEILDS

2c  LOST PRODUCTIVE TIME PROSPECTIVE NEW HIRES

3C LEAVING TO  ATTEND COLLEGE FULL TIME

7 0
3 years ago
Each of the following situations is independent. Work out your own solution to each situation, and then check it against the sol
saw5 [17]

Morgan will get $1600 with the process of simple interest.

<h3>what is simple interest?</h3>

Simple interest is calculated based on a loan's principal or the initial deposit into a savings account. Simple interest doesn't compound, therefore a creditor will only charge interest on the principal sum, and a borrower will never be required to pay further interest on the interest that has already accrued.

Rate of interest = 12%

principal = $1000

Time = 5 years

Simple interest

=\frac{1000 \times 5 \times 12}{100}\\=600

Now amount = 1000+600 = 1600.

Therefore, Morgan will get $1600.

To learn more about simple interest from the given link

brainly.com/question/25793394

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
Problem 5-30 Graphing; Incremental Analysis; Operating Leverage [LO5-2, LO5-4, LO5-5, LO5-6, LO5-8][The following information ap
WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

Break Even Point

In Units = 2,000 units

In value = $80,000

Explanation:

Break even Point = \frac{Fixed\ Cost}{Contribution}

When we use contribution per unit, we get the break even point in units sales.

When we use the contribution margin as a percentage of sales we get break even sales in value.

Contribution per unit = $20

Contribution margin in percentage = $20/$40 = 50%

Therefore, Break even Point in units = \frac{40,000}{20} = 2,000

Break even units = 2,000

Break Even Point in value = \frac{40,000}{0.50} = 80,000

Sales to be made in value at break even = $80,000

8 0
3 years ago
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