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larisa [96]
2 years ago
6

A lender advertises 80% LTV conventional loans. 80% is applied to: Select one: a. Appraised value b. Selling price c. The buyers

income d. The purchase price or appraised value, whichever is lower
Business
1 answer:
AveGali [126]2 years ago
5 0

The purchase price or appraised value, whichever is lower, is the correct option when considering loan-to-value ratio in mortgage lending

What does an 80% loan-to-value ratio mean?

The loan-to-value ratio means the percentage of the property worth that the borrower could receive as a loan from the financial institution, which means that the remaining percentage after having deducted the loan-to-value ratio from 100% would be financed by the borrower, which serves as a way to avoid default.

Ordinarily, the loan-to-value ratio is applied to the lower of the selling price or the appraised value of the property, but note that a selling price to one party  is the purchase price to another, hence, option d is the most correct

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An aging of a company's accounts receivable indicates that the estimate of uncollectible receivables totals $4,705. If Allowance
Vaselesa [24]

Answer:

Debit to bad debt expense for $3,648

Explanation:

This is because the company needs to show the total amount in the Allowance for doubtful accounts as credit balance. It means that if for instance the balance today is $1,057 you'll need a new entry to adjust the balance with the bad debt.

It means that the entry must be a debit in bad debt expense for $3,648 while the corresponding credit goes to allowance for doubtful accounts.

4 0
3 years ago
When a firm like dunkin’ donuts conducts marketing research, what should its first step be?
dezoksy [38]
When one does marketing research, he or she gathers important information that would help him decide whether the proposed product or service is suitable for the market. So when a firm like Dunkin' Donuts does marketing research, the first step that it should do would be to identify research objectives. 
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
: You have a product that sells for $100, and costs you $60 to make. A customer normally orders 1,000 units, but will order 2,00
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

<u>less profit per unit</u>

Explanation:

  • If a customer normally orders 1,000 units, then total profit =  $100-$60 * 1000 units = <u>$40,000.</u> (i.e we subtracted cost from selling price to determine profit per unit, and then multiply by the total unit ordered to get total profit)
  • If you drop the price 20% out of $100 ($100 - \frac{20}{100} *100= $80) for the order of 2000 units, then profit = $80-$60 * 2000 = <u>$40,000.</u> (i.e we reduced selling price by 20% and then substracted cost, $60 from selling price to determine profit per unit, and then multiply by the total unit ordered to get total profit)

Although the total profit is the same, we observe that the profit per unit is lesser on the larger order, which has a profit per unit of $20 ($80-$60), while the smaller order has $40 ($100-$60) per unit profit.

6 0
3 years ago
Traditionally, small businesses tended to be concentrated in the ________ industry.
DENIUS [597]
Traditionally, small businesses tended to be concentrated in the retail or retailing industry.

The retail industry involves a business that sells good or services to a consumer. The sell these items based on the demand of the good or service. Even today, the retail industry is growing fast and still one of the main focuses of small businesses. 
7 0
3 years ago
The yield on a one-year Treasury security is 4.9200%, and the two-year Treasury security has a 7.3800% yield. Assuming that the
gayaneshka [121]

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

1. Pure Expectation Theory :

Each option must provide the same amount of cash at the end of 2 years, which implies that,

CF at the end of year 2 = CF at the end of year 1

[tex](1+0.0738)^{2} = (1+0.0492) (1+x) [tex\]

Hence, x = 9.90

so the market's estimate of the one year Treasury rate one year from now it will be 9.90%

2. In case of maturity risk premium, the cash flow of two year treasury security will reduce, it will be:

= 7.38 - 0.40

= 6.98.

Hence, Treasury Rate will be as follows:

CF at the end of year 2 = CF at the end of year 1

[tex](1+0.0698)^{2} = (1 + 0.0492) (1 + x)[tex\]

x = 9.080%

7 0
3 years ago
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