Answer:
It is incorrect to classify an American politician as a communist because they have indicated the need for government to up its intervention in some aspect of the economy due to the following reasons:
A communist is one who is an ardent adherent and supporter of the ideologies of communism.
Communism is the political philosophy which supports the position that the government or the state ought and should control all resources and distribute them according to the ability of each individual to contribute to it with the intention of eliminating inequality.
The question asserts that the Americal politician is asking for MORE government involvement, not TOTAL government take over as is the case in Communism. The label - Communist therefore does not correctly qualify the politician.
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Answer:
b
Explanation:
Corporate Violence is is kind of white collar crime conducted by business people that even cause death of people. It even corresponds to selling of harmful product in the market or product that below standard qualities.
b. the lack of action by BP prior to the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico despite knowledge of unstable seals
is an example of "corporate violence".
Answer:
Yes and no in a way the Constitution kinda ensured there rights as people. But did not directly state it that what when the bill of rights came to play. And if the continues the confederal government we would have an anarchy because the government would collapsed decades ago. Yes some might have could have took it over and not people might not have there rights.
Explanation:
The theory of comparative advantage is credited to David Ricardo.
<h3>What is Ricardo's theory of comparative advantage?</h3>
In economics, a comparative advantage occurs when a country can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than another country.
The theory of comparative advantage is attributed to political economist David Ricardo, who wrote the book Principles of Political Economy and Taxation (1817).
Comparative advantage is a key principle in international trade and forms the basis of why free trade is beneficial to countries.
Eg; Consider two countries (China and the UAE) that use labor as an input to produce two goods: wine and cloth.
In China, one hour of a worker’s labor can produce either 5 cloths or 10 wines.
In the UAE, one hour of a worker’s labor can produce either 20 cloths or 15 wines.
The UAE enjoys an absolute advantage in the production of cloth and wine.
To learn more about Comparative advantage, refer
brainly.com/question/4302332
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